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Internet for Lawyers: law updates, tech for lawyers and lawtech news, views and resources. Formerly posting as @lawtweets on the other place. Website https://www.infolaw.co.uk Nick Holmes posts in a personal capacity as @nickholmes53.bsky.social.

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Implications of the Middle East conflict for businesses The conflict in the Middle East is having profound human and economic cost across the region and beyond.

From Out-Law: Implications of the Middle East conflict for businesses

11.03.2026 01:05 👍 0 🔁 0 💬 0 📌 0
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Drop plans for AI-related copyright exception, UK ministers urged UK lawmakers have called on the government to rule out writing a new text and data mining (TDM) exception to copyright, to support AI training and development, into UK law.

From Out-Law: Drop plans for AI-related copyright exception, UK ministers urged

07.03.2026 02:56 👍 0 🔁 0 💬 0 📌 0
Sustainable Aviation Fuel Act 2026 An Act to make provision about sustainable aviation fuel.

New Act on TNA: Sustainable Aviation Fuel Act 2026

06.03.2026 16:26 👍 0 🔁 0 💬 0 📌 0
Rare Cancers Act 2026 An Act to make provision to incentivise research and investment into the treatment of rare types of cancer; and for connected purposes.

New Act on TNA: Rare Cancers Act 2026

06.03.2026 15:29 👍 0 🔁 0 💬 0 📌 0
Medical Training (Prioritisation) Act 2026 An Act to make provision about the prioritisation of graduates from medical schools in the United Kingdom and certain other persons for places on medical training programmes.

New Act on TNA: Medical Training (Prioritisation) Act 2026

05.03.2026 17:37 👍 0 🔁 0 💬 0 📌 0
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Online Safety Act: content around body stigma and depression could be regulated Online service providers in the UK could face new duties to monitor for and address content that shames or otherwise stigmatises body types or physical features, as well as content that promotes depression, hopelessness and despair, under new plans being considered to protect children against online harm.

From Out-Law: Online Safety Act: content around body stigma and depression could be regulated

05.03.2026 15:16 👍 0 🔁 0 💬 0 📌 0
The Kingdom of Spain v Infrastructure Services Luxembourg SÀRL and another; Republic of Zimbabwe v Border Timbers Ltd and another - Find Case Law - The National Archives View download options The Kingdom of Spain (Appellant) v Infrastructure Services Luxembourg S.À.R.L. and another (Respondents); Republic of Zimbabwe (Appellant) v Border Timbers Ltd and another (Respondents) LORD LLOYD-JONES AND LADY SIMLER (with whom Lord Briggs, Lord Sales and Lord Leggatt agree): I Introduction The question on these two appeals is whether two foreign sovereign states, the Kingdom of Spain and the Republic of Zimbabwe, each the subject of adverse arbitration awards rendered pursuant to the provisions of the 1965 Convention on the Settlement of Investment Disputes between States and Nationals of Other States 575 UNTS 159 (“the ICSID Convention”), can rely on their sovereign immunity to set aside the registration of those awards in the High Court under the Arbitration (International Investment Disputes) Act 1966 (“the 1966 Act”). The 1966 Act is the legislation by which the United Kingdom has given effect to its obligation to make the provisions of the ICSID Convention effective in its territories. II The facts and background to each appeal The United Kingdom signed the ICSID Convention on 26 May 1965, and it entered into force for the United Kingdom on 18 January 1967. It entered into force for Spain on 17 September 1994 and for Zimbabwe on 19 June 1994. Spain ratified the multilateral Energy Charter Treaty 1994 (“the ECT”) in 1997. (Spain has since withdrawn from the ECT with effect from 17 April 2025 but that has no impact on this appeal.) In May 2007, Spain introduced Royal Decree 661/2007 which built on an earlier measure providing that the owners of renewable energy facilities located in Spain would receive a reasonable return on their investments in Spain. The respondents, Infrastructure Services Luxembourg S.À.R.L. and Energia Termosolar BV (together referred to for convenience as “Infrastructure”) are companies domiciled in Luxembourg and the Netherlands, respectively. Both Luxembourg and the Netherlands were at the relevant times parties to the ICSID Convention and the ECT, and were EU Member States. 5. Infrastructure claimed to have invested €139.5 million in renewable energy facilities in Spain, by acquiring a 45% shareholding in the Andasol solar power station in Granada with effect from 31 August 2011, on the strength of Royal Decree 661/2007. Infrastructure claimed that subsequent changes to the regulatory regime governing the Spanish energy market damaged their investments in Spain in breach of the ECT. They made a request for arbitration against Spain under article 26 of the ECT and the ICSID Convention, leading to the constitution of an arbitral tribunal and the commencement of arbitration proceedings on 22 November 2013. Spain challenged the jurisdiction of the arbitral panel, including on the basis that a claim under the ECT between an EU Member State and the national of another EU Member State infringed article 344 of the 2007 Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union (“the TFEU”), and that the ECT had in any event to be interpreted as excluding such “intra-EU” claims. 6. By an award dated 15 June 2018, those objections were rejected by the arbitral tribunal, and Infrastructure succeeded in their substantive claim, with the panel finding that, by amending its regulatory regime, Spain had breached the “fair and equitable treatment” standard in article 10(1) of the ECT. Spain was ordered to pay €112 million in compensation, plus interest and costs. On 29 January 2019, following an application for rectification by Spain pursuant to article 49(2) of the ICSID Convention, the award was reduced by €11 million. Spain then applied to challenge the award under the annulment procedure in the ICSID Convention, alleging (among other things) that the arbitral tribunal had exceeded its powers by exercising jurisdiction over the arbitration on the basis that any intra-EU arbitration under the ECT is precluded by EU law. The ICSID Ad Hoc Committee conducted a hearing and heard arguments on all matters raised by Spain. Spain’s application for annulment was rejected by a decision of the ICSID Ad Hoc Committee dated 30 July 2021. Spain also sought a stay of enforcement which was initially granted but then lifted. On 4 June 2021, Infrastructure applied without notice to the High Court of England and Wales to register the rectified award as a judgment in the sum of €120,083,287.88 under section 1 of the 1966 Act. On 29 June 2021, Cockerill J registered the award as if it were a final judgment of the High Court. (Infrastructure had also applied to the Federal Court in Australia for recognition of the award as well as to the US District Court for the District of Columbia in Washington DC. Recognition in those jurisdictions was challenged by Spain on broadly the same grounds as advanced in this jurisdiction.) On 28 April 2022, Spain applied to set aside the registration order on the basis that it was immune from the adjudicative jurisdiction of the English courts under section 1(1) of the State Immunity Act 1978 (“the SIA 1978”). 8. The application was heard by Fraser J and dismissed by a judgment dated 24 May 2023, reported at [2023] EWHC 1226 (Comm), [2024] 1 All ER 404, [2023] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 299. Fraser J dealt with several issues that are no longer relevant on these appeals. So far as relevant, he held, in summary, that by becoming a party to the ICSID Convention (article 54(1) in particular) and the ECT (article 26), Spain had submitted to the jurisdiction of the English courts by prior written agreement under section 2(2) of the SIA 1978. In the alternative, the Supreme Court’s reasoning in Micula v Romania [2020] UKSC 5, [2020] 1 WLR 1033 also precluded Spain from contesting the existence of an arbitration agreement between itself and Infrastructure, such that section 9(1) of the SIA 1978 (which excepts a state from immunity as respects proceedings which relate to an arbitration) was automatically satisfied. In the alternative, pursuant to article 26 of the ECT and the ICSID Convention, there was a valid arbitration agreement between Infrastructure and Spain for the purposes of section 9(1) of the SIA 1978. Zimbabwe is party to a bilateral investment treaty with Switzerland (signed on 15 August 1996 and in force from 9 February 2001) which provides for disputes with respect to investments between a contracting party and an investor of the other contracting party to be “submitted to the arbitration of the International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes, instituted by the [ICSID] Convention”, if an investment dispute cannot be resolved by agreement between the parties (article 10(2) of the bilateral investment treaty). The respondents to this appeal, Border Timbers Ltd and Hangani Development Co. (Private) Ltd (together referred to for convenience as “Border Timbers”), claim to have invested in land in Zimbabwe which was later expropriated without compensation. The resulting dispute was not resolved by agreement, and Border Timbers initiated arbitral proceedings against Zimbabwe pursuant to article 10 of the bilateral investment treaty. Zimbabwe disputed the tribunal’s jurisdiction. It was and remains Zimbabwe’s position that article 10 does not apply to the “investments” (a term defined in the treaty) purportedly made by Border Timbers as a purported “investor” (also a term defined in the treaty) in Zimbabwe, that it accordingly never agreed to arbitrate disputes with Border Timbers under the bilateral investment treaty, and that there is thus no question of the application of the ICSID Convention (which can only come into play to provide the applicable framework for an arbitration if there is in fact a valid agreement to arbitrate). By an award in favour of Border Timbers dated 28 July 2015, the arbitral tribunal dismissed Zimbabwe’s objections to jurisdiction and ordered Zimbabwe to pay US$124,041,223 together with interest, a further US$1m in moral damages and costs. Zimbabwe applied to have the award annulled by means of a process provided for in article 52 of the ICSID Convention. That application was dismissed by the ICSID annulment committee on 21 November 2018, with further costs ordered to be paid by Zimbabwe. Zimbabwe also sought a stay of enforcement, which was refused by that committee. The award was not satisfied, and, on 15 September 2021, Border Timbers applied without notice to the High Court of England and Wales to register the award as a judgment of the domestic courts under section 1 of the 1966 Act. On 8 October 2021, Cockerill J registered the award as if it were a final judgment of the High Court. The order was served on Zimbabwe on 27 May 2022. On 25 July 2022, Zimbabwe applied to set it aside on the basis that it was immune from the adjudicative jurisdiction of the English courts under section 1(1) of the SIA 1978. Border Timbers resisted the application, contending that Zimbabwe fell within one or both exceptions to immunity set out in sections 2 and 9 of the SIA 1978 on the basis that Zimbabwe had submitted to the jurisdiction by virtue of its agreement to the ICSID Convention and/or had agreed to submit the underlying dispute to ICSID arbitration and so was not immune in respect of proceedings in the United Kingdom relating to that arbitration. The set-aside application was heard and dismissed by Dias J. In a judgment reported at [2024] EWHC 58 (Comm), [2024] 1 WLR 3417, she held that, as a matter of public international law, article 54(1) constituted a general waiver of immunity, but such a general waiver did not meet the elevated threshold she applied to qualify as a submission to the jurisdiction for the purposes of section 2 of the SIA 1978. Section 9 of the SIA 1978 required the English court to make its own determination of whether Zimbabwe had agreed to arbitration, and an arbitral tribunal’s own finding that it had jurisdiction could not preclude the English court from doing so. In any event, she held that registration of an ICSID award is a purely administrative act and therefore not an exercise of adjudicative jurisdiction, such that the SIA 1978 did not apply at all to registration proceedings under the 1966 Act. 16. The appeals of Spain and Zimbabwe (together “the appellant states”) were heard together by the Court of Appeal (Flaux C and Newey and Phillips LJJ) in June 2024. By a judgment dated 22 October 2024, reported at [2024] EWCA Civ 1257, [2025] 2 WLR 621, the appeals were dismissed. In summary and so far as relevant, the Court of Appeal held that registration of an ICSID award under section 1 of the 1966 Act engages the adjudicative jurisdiction of the English courts (paras 35 – 39). This conclusion is not challenged by any of the parties. In relation to section 2(2) of the SIA 1978, the Court of Appeal held that article 54(1) of the ICSID Convention constitutes a prior written agreement by which the contracting states to the ICSID Convention submitted to the jurisdiction of the courts of other contracting states including the United Kingdom, such that the section 2(2) exception is necessarily established in relation to proceedings to register ICSID awards here (para 59). Further, while section 2(2) of the SIA 1978 requires any submission to the jurisdiction to be express and not implied, properly interpreted, agreement to article 54(1) of the ICSID Convention was a sufficiently express and clear submission to displace the immunity otherwise afforded by section 1(1) of the SIA 1978 in respect of each appellant state (para 96). Finally, in Zimbabwe’s case only, because Zimbabwe had reserved its right to advance non-immunity defences to enforcement of the award, if necessary, following determination of its claim to immunity, and these had therefore not been adjudicated upon, the Court of Appeal remitted Zimbabwe’s set-aside application to the Commercial Court for directions as to the determination of Zimbabwe’s reserved non-immunity defences. In light of those conclusions, the Court of Appeal considered it unnecessary to decide whether section 9(1) applied, though it indicated that, had the issue fallen to be decided, it was difficult to interpret section 9(1) of the SIA 1978 other than as imposing a duty on the English court to satisfy itself that the state in question has in fact agreed in writing to submit the dispute in question to arbitration. There was no legal basis, whether by way of issue estoppel or statutory interpretation, which would justify the court in abrogating that duty and considering itself bound by the determination of an arbitral tribunal as to its own jurisdiction under the ICSID Convention (para 105). So far as concerned the difficult intra-EU issues raised by Spain’s appeal, the Court of Appeal declined to address these given its conclusion that there was an agreement to submit to the jurisdiction under article 54(1) of the ICSID Convention. 19. The appellant states now appeal to the Supreme Court. Two main issues are raised by their appeals: Issue 1: By agreeing to be bound by article 54(1) of the ICSID Convention, did the appellant states submit to the jurisdiction of the English courts by agreement within the meaning of section 2(2) of the SIA 1978 such that they do not enjoy immunity from adjudicative jurisdiction with respect to these proceedings under section 1(1) of the SIA? Issue 2: Did the appellant states agree to arbitrate with the respondent investors within the meaning of section 9(1) of the SIA 1978 such that they do not enjoy immunity from adjudicative jurisdiction with respect to these proceedings under section 1(1) of the SIA 1978? The Infrastructure respondents also advance additional reasons for upholding the judgment of the Court of Appeal. For reasons that will become apparent, it is not necessary to set these out and the court heard no argument on them. The court heard argument over two days on issue 1 and concluded that it was unnecessary to hear argument on issue 2 or any other issues. Accordingly, this judgment addresses issue 1 only and, in particular, whether by agreeing to the obligations in article 54(1) of the ICSID Convention as properly construed, Zimbabwe and Spain agreed that all other contracting states (including the United Kingdom) would exercise adjudicative jurisdiction to recognise and enforce the ICSID awards obtained by the respondent investors, and thereby waived their immunity and submitted to the jurisdiction of UK courts for the purpose of section 2(2) of the SIA 1978. We are concerned on these appeals with immunity from adjudicative jurisdiction only. We are not concerned with immunity from execution. 22. The rules of state immunity in international law which limit a domestic court’s jurisdiction over a foreign state are a reflection of the principle of the sovereign equality of states. In the Jurisdictional Immunities of the State (Germany v Italy) (2012) ICJ Rep 99 the International Court of Justice observed (at para 57): “The Court considers that the rule of State immunity occupies an important place in international law and international relations. It derives from the principle of sovereign equality of States, which, as Article 2, paragraph 1, of the Charter of the United Nations makes clear, is one of the fundamental principles of the international legal order. This principle has to be viewed together with the principle that each State possesses sovereignty over its own territory and that there flows from that sovereignty the jurisdiction of the State over events and persons within that territory. Exceptions to the immunity of the State represent a departure from the principle of sovereign equality. Immunity may represent a departure from the principle of territorial sovereignty and the jurisdiction which flows from it.” The immunity of states in international law is not absolute but is subject to a number of exceptions. In addition, a state may waive its immunity. An agreement between states by treaty obliging those states to exercise jurisdiction on a mutual, reciprocal basis over each other would be capable of constituting a waiver of immunity. III The legislative framework The 1966 Act As already stated, the ICSID Convention is given effect in the United Kingdom by the 1966 Act. Section 1 applies to awards rendered pursuant to the ICSID Convention. Section 1(2) provides that a person seeking recognition or enforcement of such an award “shall be entitled to have the award registered in the High Court subject to proof of the prescribed matters and to the other provisions of this Act”. Rules of court prescribe the matters to be proved on the application and the manner of proof and require the applicant to furnish a copy of the award certified pursuant to the ICSID Convention. 24. Section 2 of the 1966 Act deals with the effect of registration and provides: Subject to the provisions of this Act, an award registered under section 1 above shall, as respects the pecuniary obligations which it imposes, be of the same force and effect for the purposes of execution as if it had been a judgment of the High Court given when the award was rendered pursuant to the Convention and entered on the date of registration under this Act, and, so far as relates to such pecuniary obligations - (a) proceedings may be taken on the award, (b) the sum for which the award is registered shall carry interest, (c) the High Court shall have the same control over the execution of the award, as if the award had been such a judgment of the High Court.” In the United Kingdom the rules relating to state immunity, previously governed by the common law, have been codified in the SIA 1978. Section 1 of the SIA 1978 accords to foreign states immunity from the jurisdiction of courts of the United Kingdom, except as provided for in sections 2 to 11 of the SIA 1978. The application of the presumptive immunity in section 1 means that if a case does not fall within one of these exceptions, the foreign state is immune. The burden is on the applicant to prove the application of an exception. Sovereign state immunity is a procedural bar to proceedings where it applies, and the court is bound to give effect to it of its own motion. 27. The exception relevant in these appeals is section 2. So far as material, it provides as follows: “Submission to jurisdiction. A State is not immune as respects proceedings in respect of which it has submitted to the jurisdiction of the courts of the United Kingdom. A State may submit after the dispute giving rise to the proceedings has arisen or by a prior written agreement; but a provision in any agreement that it is to be governed by the law of the United Kingdom is not to be regarded as a submission. subject to subsections (4) and (5) below, if it has intervened or taken any step in the proceedings. Section 17 is an interpretation provision. Section 17(2) provides: “In sections 2(2) and 13(3) above references to an agreement include references to a treaty, convention or other international agreement”. It follows that a state is not immune in relation to proceedings in the United Kingdom where it has submitted to the jurisdiction by a prior written treaty or convention. The ICSID Convention The ICSID Convention (which had three original language texts: English, French and Spanish) was opened for signature on 18 March 1965. It was registered by the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (“the IBRD”) on 17 October 1966. It is currently in force in 158 contracting states (including, as we have indicated above, the United Kingdom, Spain and Zimbabwe). This Convention imposes certain treaty obligations upon all those contracting states. 30. The Preamble provides as follows: “Preamble The Contracting States Considering the need for international cooperation for economic development, and the role of private international investment therein; Bearing in mind the possibility that from time to time disputes may arise in connection with such investment between Contracting States and nationals of other Contracting States; Recognizing that while such disputes would usually be subject to national legal processes, international methods of settlement may be appropriate in certain cases; Attaching particular importance to the availability of facilities for international conciliation or arbitration to which Contracting States and nationals of other Contracting States may submit such disputes if they so desire; Desiring to establish such facilities under the auspices of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development; Recognizing that mutual consent by the parties to submit such disputes to conciliation or to arbitration through such facilities constitutes a binding agreement which requires in particular that due consideration be given to any recommendation of conciliators, and that any arbitral award be complied with; and Declaring that no Contracting State shall by the mere fact of its ratification, acceptance or approval of this Convention and without its consent be deemed to be under any obligation to submit any particular dispute to conciliation or arbitration, Have agreed as follows: . . .” In short, the ICSID Convention established an agreement between its contracting states which took account of the need for international cooperation for economic development, and the role of private investment in that regard. Recognising that disputes would potentially arise between private investors and host states, and although those disputes would sometimes be subject to national processes, an international settlement of disputes between such parties would sometimes be appropriate. Therefore, facilities for this were established under the auspices of the IBRD, an international institution that is part of the World Bank. Both it and ICSID are headquartered in Washington DC. IBRD is the seat of the International Centre for the Settlement of Investment Disputes (“ICSID”) (which is called “the Centre” in the ICSID Convention). Chapter I of the ICSID Convention establishes the structures and organs of ICSID, while Chapter II defines its jurisdiction. It is clear from these provisions that the ICSID Convention does not itself constitute an agreement to arbitrate between foreign investors and Contracting States. Foreign investors are private persons. They are not and cannot be parties to the ICSID Convention. The ICSID Convention provides a framework for the resolution of such disputes as the parties may agree in writing to submit to ICSID. A separate agreement to arbitrate is therefore required and is commonly formed by the acceptance by an investor of a standing offer to arbitrate in a bilateral investment treaty or other treaty between two or more states. Absent such an agreement, a foreign state, which is a sovereign actor in public international law, cannot be brought into any sort of compulsory international adjudicatory process by a private person. The jurisdiction of the Centre shall extend to any legal dispute arising directly out of an investment, between a Contracting State (or any constituent subdivision or agency of a Contracting State designated to the Centre by that State) and a national of another Contracting State, which the parties to the dispute consent in writing to submit to the Centre. When the parties have given their consent, no party may withdraw its consent unilaterally.” Article 27(1) provides that no contracting state shall give diplomatic protection, or bring an international claim, in respect of a dispute which one of its nationals and another contracting state shall have consented to submit or shall have submitted to arbitration under the ICSID Convention, unless that other contracting state has failed to abide by and comply with the award rendered in that dispute. By article 41(1), the arbitral tribunal shall be the judge of its own competence. Article 41(2) provides: “Any objection by a party to the dispute that that dispute is not within the jurisdiction of the Centre, or for other reasons is not within the competence of the Tribunal, shall be considered by the Tribunal which shall determine whether to deal with it as a preliminary question or to join it to the merits of the dispute.” “The Tribunal shall decide a dispute in accordance with such rules of law as may be agreed by the parties. In the absence of such agreement, the Tribunal shall apply the law of the Contracting State party to the dispute (including its rules on the conflict of laws) and such rules of international law as may be applicable.” So far as the arbitral award is concerned, interpretation, revision and annulment are dealt with by articles 50 to 52. Disputes about interpretation or requests for revision are dealt with by the arbitral tribunal or a new tribunal constituted in accordance with the ICSID Convention, and where there is a request for annulment, by an ad hoc committee. 39. “Recognition and Enforcement of the Award” are provided for in section 6 of Chapter IV, and the following provisions constitute the scheme which is at the heart of these appeals: “Article 53 The award shall be binding on the parties and shall not be subject to any appeal or to any other remedy except those provided for in this Convention. Each party shall abide by and comply with the terms of the award except to the extent that enforcement shall have been stayed pursuant to the relevant provisions of this Convention. For the purposes of this Section, “award” shall include any decision interpreting, revising or annulling such award pursuant to Articles 50, 51 or 52. Article 54 Each Contracting State shall recognize an award rendered pursuant to this Convention as binding and enforce the pecuniary obligations imposed by that award within its territories as if it were a final judgment of a court in that State. A Contracting State with a federal constitution may enforce such an award in or through its federal courts and may provide that such courts shall treat the award as if it were a final judgment of the courts of a constituent state. A party seeking recognition or enforcement in the territories of a Contracting State shall furnish to a competent court or other authority which such State shall have designated for this purpose a copy of the award certified by the Secretary-General. Each Contracting State shall notify the Secretary-General of the designation of the competent court or other authority for this purpose and of any subsequent change in such designation. Execution of the award shall be governed by the laws concerning the execution of judgments in force in the State in whose territories such execution is sought. Article 55 Nothing in Article 54 shall be construed as derogating from the law in force in any Contracting State relating to immunity of that State or of any foreign State from execution.” Provision is made for disputes between contracting states in article 64 which provides: “Any dispute arising between Contracting States concerning the interpretation or application of this Convention which is not settled by negotiation shall be referred to the International Court of Justice by the application of any party to such dispute, unless the States concerned agree to another method of settlement.” Finally, article 69 provides: “Each Contracting State shall take such legislative or other measures as may be necessary for making the provisions of this Convention effective in its territories.” IV The central questions on this appeal Against this background, two principal questions arise. First, what is the test for deciding whether there has been an agreement to submit to the jurisdiction under section 2(2) of the SIA 1978? This is a matter of domestic law. Secondly, what is the correct interpretation of articles 53 to 55 of the ICSID Convention as a matter of customary international law, and does article 54(1) satisfy the section 2 test? We start with the test under section 2 of the SIA 1978. V The test under section 2 of the SIA 1978 for waiver of immunity 43. A considerable amount of time was devoted at the hearing to the question whether any waiver of immunity by treaty must be express or whether it may be implied. We were told initially that it was common ground between the parties that any waiver of immunity by treaty must be express. However, when counsel were pressed as to the precise meaning and effect of this statement differences emerged. Counsel for the appellant states submitted that state immunity is a matter of such fundamental importance that an agreement to waive it must be express. Ordinarily this would require that words such as “waiver” or “submission” should appear. Where such words are absent, Mr Moollan KC for Zimbabwe accepted that it may be possible to infer a waiver of immunity from the words used, but only if not inferring waiver would otherwise render the clause unworkable, meaningless or lead to absurdity or complete incompatibility. Mr Bastin KC for Spain submitted that a necessary implication from express terms would be an implied term and not a valid waiver. By contrast, Mr Green KC and Mr Harris KC for the respondent investors explained their position that an express waiver does not require the explicit use of words such as “waiver”, “submission” or “immunity” but would include a necessary implication from the express words used. In their submission, “express” means clear when the interpretative process required by articles 31 and 32 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties 1969 (“the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties”) is applied to the words used. It appears therefore that there are in fact important differences between the positions of the parties. The issue before the court is made the more difficult by an inconsistent use of the terminology of express and implied terms and disagreement as to the boundary between the two. The starting point must be section 2 of the SIA 1978, which establishes an exception to immunity in the case of submission to the jurisdiction. We note that it does not employ the terminology of express or implied submission or waiver. Section 2(2) simply states that a state may submit after a dispute giving rise to the proceedings has arisen or by prior written agreement. 46. “Article 2 A Contracting State cannot claim immunity from the jurisdiction of a court of another Contracting State if it has undertaken to submit to the jurisdiction of that court either: by an express consent given after a dispute between the parties has arisen.” 47. The UN Convention on Jurisdictional Immunities of States and their Property (2004), 44 ILM 801 (“UNCSI”) requires express consent to the exercise of jurisdiction: “Article 7 Express consent to exercise of jurisdiction A State cannot invoke immunity from jurisdiction in a proceeding before a court of another State with regard to a matter or case if it has expressly consented to the exercise of jurisdiction by the court with regard to the matter or case: by a declaration before the court or by a written communication in a specific proceeding.” The US Foreign Sovereign Immunities Act 28 USC paragraph 1605 provides that immunity may be waived “either explicitly or by implication”. A foreign state shall not be immune from the jurisdiction of courts of the United States or of the States in any case – in which the foreign state has waived its immunity either explicitly or by implication, notwithstanding any withdrawal of the waiver which the foreign state may purport to effect except in accordance with the terms of the waiver; …” 49. The principal authority on which the appellant states rely in this regard is the dissenting judgment of Lord Goff in R v Bow Street Magistrate, Ex parte Pinochet (No 3) [2000] 1 AC 147 (“Pinochet (No 3)”). The central issue in that case was whether the state parties to the Convention against Torture and other Cruel, Inhuman or Degrading Treatment or Punishment, 1984 (“Convention against Torture”) had agreed to exclude reliance on state immunity ratione materiae in relation to proceedings brought against their public officials, or other persons acting in an official capacity, in respect of torture contrary to the Convention. More particularly the question was whether General Pinochet, a former head of state of Chile, enjoyed immunity ratione materiae in respect of an application for his extradition to Spain to face charges of official torture contrary to the Convention against Torture or whether any such immunity had been removed by the provisions of the Convention against Torture to which Chile, Spain and the United Kingdom were parties. (Immunity ratione materiae is an immunity in international law which arises by reason of the subject matter of the proceedings and is to be distinguished from immunity ratione personae which arises by reason of the status of the defendant. Immunity ratione personae did not apply in that case because General Pinochet was no longer head of state of Chile.) 50. Accepting a submission on behalf of Chile that a state’s waiver of its immunity by treaty must always be express, Lord Goff stated in relation to the Convention against Torture (at 213C-D): “It is to be observed that no mention is made of state immunity in the Convention. Had it been intended to exclude state immunity, it is reasonable to assume that this would have been the subject either of a separate article, or of a separate paragraph in article 7, introduced to provide for that particular matter.” He stated (at 213H–214B) that, since exclusion of immunity was said to result from the Convention against Torture and there was no express term of the Convention to this effect, the argument had to be formulated as dependent upon an implied term in the Convention. He commented that the proposed implied term had not been precisely formulated. 51. Citing Oppenheim’s International Law, vol. I, 9th ed. (1992) (ed. Sir Robert Jennings QC and Sir Arthur Watts QC), pp 351–355, the International Law Commission commentary on the Draft Articles which were eventually adopted as UNCSI and the decision of the US Supreme Court in Argentine Republic v Amerada Hess Shipping Corporation (1989) 109 S Ct 683, Lord Goff considered (at 215A-216G) that in international law waiver of immunity by treaty must always be express. Turning to the provisions of the SIA 1978, he observed (at 216H – 217B): “Section 2(2) recognises that a state may submit to the jurisdiction by a prior written agreement, which I read as referring to an express agreement to submit. There is no suggestion in the Act that an implied agreement to submit would be sufficient, except in so far as an actual submission to the jurisdiction of a court of this country, may be regarded as an implied waiver of immunity; but my reading of the Act leads me to understand that such a submission to the jurisdiction is here regarded as an express rather than an implied waiver of immunity or agreement to submit to the jurisdiction.” Lord Goff went on to state that this was consistent with Part III of the SIA 1978 which by section 20 applied to a head of state the provisions of the Diplomatic Privileges Act 1964 (“DPA”), subject to any necessary modifications. Section 2 of the DPA in turn rendered applicable certain articles of the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations 1961, 500 UNTS 95, article 32(2) of which: “provides that such waiver must always be express, which I read as including an actual submission to the jurisdiction, as well as an express agreement in advance to submit. Once again, there is no provision for an implied agreement.” (at 217C) Lord Goff came to the following conclusion (at 217D): “In the light of the foregoing it appears to me to be clear that, in accordance both with international law, and with the law of this country, which on this point reflects international law, a state’s waiver of its immunity by treaty must … always be express. Indeed, if this was not so, there could well be international chaos as the courts of different state parties to a treaty reach different conclusions on the question whether a waiver of immunity was to be implied.” While a waiver of immunity must always be clear and unequivocal, we consider that Lord Goff took an unnecessarily narrow view of what may constitute an express waiver of immunity. 54. First, it should be noted that Lord Goff’s is a dissenting judgment. The other six members of the Appellate Committee held that General Pinochet was not entitled to immunity. The only support to be found in other judgments for Lord Goff’s views on waiver of immunity is the brief observation of Lord Millett (at 268B-C): “State immunity is not a personal right. It is an attribute of the sovereignty of the state. … It may be asserted or waived by the state, but where it is waived by treaty or convention the waiver must be express. So much is not in dispute.” However, Lord Millett was one of four members of the court who considered that the existence of immunity was inconsistent with the provisions of the Convention against Torture. He considered that customary international law had changed before the entry into force of the Convention against Torture in 1987 with the result that immunity ratione materiae was no longer available in cases of official torture. Nevertheless, Lord Millett considered that Chile, as a party to the Convention against Torture, must be taken to have assented to the imposition of an obligation on foreign national courts to take and exercise criminal jurisdiction in respect of the official use of torture. He explained that he did not regard Chile as having thereby waived its immunity. Rather he considered that there was no immunity to waive. However, he went on to state: “International law cannot be supposed to have established a crime having the character of a jus cogens and at the same time to have provided an immunity which is coextensive with the obligation it seeks to impose.” (at 278A-B) 55. In contrast to Lord Goff’s view as to what might constitute express waiver, Lord Saville, a member of the majority, characterised Chile’s consent to the Convention against Torture as an express waiver of immunity: “Since 8 December 1988 Chile, Spain and this country have all been parties to the Torture Convention. So far as these countries at least are concerned it seems to me that from that date these state parties are in agreement with each other that the immunity ratione materiae of their former heads of state cannot be claimed in cases of alleged official torture. In other words, so far as the allegations of official torture against Senator Pinochet are concerned, there is now by this agreement an exception or qualification to the general rule of immunity ratione materiae. I do not reach this conclusion by implying terms into the Torture Convention, but simply by applying its express terms. …” (at 267B-C) “It is also said that any waiver by states of immunities must be express, or at least unequivocal. I would not dissent from this as a general proposition, but it seems to me that the express and unequivocal terms of the Torture Convention fulfil any such requirement. To my mind these terms demonstrate that the states who have become parties have clearly and unambiguously agreed that official torture should now be dealt with in a way which would otherwise amount to an interference in their sovereignty.” (at 267F-G) 56. Secondly, Lord Goff’s conclusion that there was no express waiver in Pinochet (No 3) seems to have been based on the absence of an explicit provision in the Convention against Torture referring to a waiver of immunity. As we have seen, he noted that there was no reference to state immunity in the Convention and that there was “no express term” relating to waiver. As a result, he considered that the argument had to be formulated as dependent upon an implied term in the Convention (213C-D, 213H-214B). The notion that some express reference to consent is needed is, however, difficult to reconcile with the undoubted fact that immunity may be waived by, for example, taking a step in the proceedings. Immunity can be waived by simply doing something inconsistent with an intention to preserve immunity. If, as we consider, such conduct involving submission before the court is properly characterised as a waiver of immunity, it is difficult to see why words may not amount to such a waiver, provided they are sufficiently clear and unequivocal. This approach also fails to take any account of the possibility that waiver could be achieved by an express term which did not explicitly refer to waiver, or as a necessary consequence of such an express term, without requiring the implication of a term. As a result, Lord Goff did not analyse the relevant articles of the Convention against Torture to ascertain the explicit and inherent meaning of the words used. Instead, he proceeded on the basis that something had to be read in. 58. The approach of Lord Goff in this regard is inconsistent with the decision of the Supreme Court in NML Capital Ltd v Republic of Argentina [2011] 2 AC 495 (“NML”). In that case Argentina had issued a series of bonds which included the following clause (referred to below as the “first clause”) (at para 57): “‘the related judgment’ shall be conclusive and binding upon [Argentina] and may be enforced in any specified court or in any other courts to the jurisdiction of which the republic is or may be subject … by a suit upon such judgment …” Following Argentina’s default under the bonds, NML obtained a “related judgment” against Argentina in the United States District Court for the Southern District of New York. Despite the narrow approach to construction required by the law of New York, the governing law of the bonds, Blair J (at first instance [2009] EWHC 110 (Comm), [2009] QB 579) considered that the first clause constituted a submission to the jurisdiction of the English court insofar as “Argentina unambiguously agreed that a final judgment on the bonds in New York should be enforceable against Argentina in other courts in which it might be amenable to a suit on the judgment” (para 38). In the Court of Appeal, Aikens LJ disagreed ([2010] EWCA Civ 41, [2011] QB 8). He held that the agreement that the New York judgment could be enforced in any courts to the jurisdiction “of which Argentina is or may be subject by a suit upon such judgment” was neither a waiver of immunity nor a submission to the jurisdiction of the English court. The Supreme Court held unanimously that the first clause was both an agreement to waive immunity and an express agreement that the New York judgment could be sued on in any country that, state immunity apart, would have jurisdiction. Because England was such a country the clause constituted a submission to the jurisdiction of the English courts (per Lord Phillips, para 59). Lord Collins considered (at para 128) that the first clause “was the clearest possible waiver of immunity”. Lord Mance agreed (see para 83, dealing with what is described as the third issue), as did Lord Clarke (para 138). The members of the Supreme Court reached these conclusions notwithstanding the absence of any explicit language in the clause referring to submission or waiver. On behalf of Spain, Mr Bastin sought to distinguish NML. He relied on the fact that there were two potentially relevant clauses in the bonds in that case, and one of these dealt explicitly with waiver and submission. He argued that this affected the approach to construction of the first clause. The argument is incorrect. Lord Phillips construed the two clauses separately and held that the second clause (dealing explicitly with waiver) was an independent submission to the jurisdiction (para 61), while Lord Collins held that the waiver in the first clause was confirmed by the waiver in the second clause (para 129). 61. On behalf of Zimbabwe, Mr Moollan relied on Lord Phillips’ statement (at para 59) that to hold otherwise would be “to rob the provision of all effect” to argue that NML is authority for the proposition that it is necessary, in order to make a finding of waiver, to find that the clause in question would otherwise have no operative effect. In our judgment this is a misreading of what Lord Phillips was saying in NML. Lord Phillips said (para 59): “If a state waives immunity it does no more than place itself on the same footing as any other person. A waiver of immunity does not confer jurisdiction where, in the case of another defendant, it would not exist. If, however, state immunity is the only bar to jurisdiction, an agreement to waive immunity is tantamount to a submission to the jurisdiction. In this case Argentina agreed that the New York judgment could be enforced by a suit upon the judgment in any court to the jurisdiction of which, absent immunity, Argentina would be subject. It was both an agreement to waive immunity and an express agreement that the New York judgment could be sued on in any country that, state immunity apart, would have jurisdiction.” When expressing the view that the provision would be robbed of all effect, Lord Phillips was simply responding to and rejecting the alternative view (expressed by Aikens LJ) that it was neither a waiver nor an agreement that the judgment could be sued on in specific courts. If the clause was not a waiver of immunity but an agreement that the judgment could be sued on (subject to immunity) in courts, it would not have been robbed of all effect. The decisive finding on waiver was not dependent on a need to ensure the provision had effect, as Mr Moollan contended. It was held to be a waiver because this was the clear meaning of the express words used. 63. “A state, although in principle entitled to immunity, may waive its immunity. It may do so by expressly submitting to the jurisdiction of the court before which it is sued, either by express consent given in the context of a particular dispute which has already arisen, or by consent given in advance in a contract or international agreement. … A state may also be considered to have waived its immunity by implication, as by instituting or intervening in proceedings, or taking any steps in the proceedings relating to the merits of the case.” This passage does not support Lord Goff’s narrow approach to express consent. It also accepts that waiver may be by implication. Furthermore, contrary to Lord Goff’s expressed view (at 215C-D), the fact that the only example given in this passage of waiver of immunity by implication is to actual submission by a state in instituting or intervening in proceedings, or taking any steps in the proceedings relating to the merits of the case, is not in our view of any particular significance. It simply provides an example of waiver by implication. 64. The ILC commentary on which Lord Goff also relies (Report of the International Law Commission on the Jurisdictional Immunities of States and their Property, 1991 YBILC, vol II, Part 2, para (8)) is a commentary on draft article 7(1), which was limited to express consent. That draft article was adopted in identical terms as article 7(1) UNCSI which is set out at para 47 above. The commentary stated: “In the circumstances under consideration, that is, in the context of the state against which legal proceedings have been brought, there appear to be several recognisable methods of expressing or signifying consent. In this particular connection, the consent should not be taken for granted, nor readily implied. Any theory of “implied consent” as a possible exception to the general principles of state immunities outlined in this part should be viewed not as an exception in itself but rather as an added explanation or justification for an otherwise valid and generally recognised exception. There is therefore no room for implying the consent of an unwilling state which has not expressed its consent in a clear and recognisable manner, including by the means provided in article 8 [concerning the effect of participation in a proceeding before a court]. It remains to be seen how consent would be given or expressed so as to remove the obligation of the court of another state to refrain from the exercise of its jurisdiction against an equally sovereign state.” (Emphasis added) We need not be detained here by the reference to generally recognised exceptions to immunity being presented as cases of implied consent as this has no bearing on the present case. The important point is that the commentary does not support Lord Goff’s narrow view of express consent. On the contrary, it strongly suggests that what matters is that consent should be expressed in a clear and recognisable manner. 66. Similarly, Argentine Republic v Amerada Hess Shipping Corporation (1989) 488 US 428 does not support Lord Goff’s approach. Paragraph 1605(a)(1) of the US Foreign Sovereign Immunities Act 1976 provides for an exception to immunity where a foreign state has waived its immunity either explicitly or by implication. The plaintiffs in that case submitted that there was an implicit waiver of immunity in two international agreements to which Argentina was a party, the Geneva Convention on the High Seas 1958, 450 UNTS 82 and the Pan American Maritime Neutrality Convention (1928) 22 AJIL Supp 151. The submission was rejected by Rehnquist CJ delivering the judgment of the US Supreme Court. However, those treaties had broad objectives and were concerned with defining maritime zones and state activity in those zones. Having explained, in the context of paragraph 1604, that the conventions did “not create private rights of action for foreign corporations to recover compensation from foreign states in United States courts” (at p 442), Rehnquist CJ continued (at pp 442–443): “Nor do we see how a foreign state can waive its immunity under para 1605(a)(1) by signing an international agreement that contains no mention of a waiver of immunity to suit in United States courts or even the availability of a cause of action in the United States.” There was nothing in either convention capable of giving rise to the implication for which the plaintiffs contended. 67. An issue closely analogous to the present arose for consideration by the Court of Appeal in General Dynamics United Kingdom Ltd v State of Libya [2025] EWCA Civ 134, [2025] 4 WLR 34. That case arose from an application to set aside an interim charging order and was principally concerned with whether there was immunity from enforcement jurisdiction under the SIA 1978. Section 13(2)(b) of the SIA 1978 provides that the property of a state shall not be subject to any process for the enforcement of a judgment or arbitration award. This, however, is subject to section 13(3) which provides: “Subsections (2) and (2A) above do not prevent the giving of any relief or the issue of any process with the written consent of the State concerned; and any such consent (which may be contained in a prior agreement) may be expressed so as to apply to a limited extent or generally; but a provision merely submitting to the jurisdiction of the courts is not to be regarded as a consent for the purposes of this subsection.” Libya’s first ground of appeal to the Court of Appeal was that the judge erred in holding that “clear words” were not required for a state to consent to execution against its property within the meaning of section 13(3) of the SIA 1978. Libya contended that section 13(3) should be interpreted as requiring heightened express consent because of the sensitivity of enforcement against a state and because clear express words must be used in order to rebut the presumption that neither party to a contract intended to give up valuable rights or remedies. On the latter point Libya relied on Modern Engineering (Bristol) Ltd v Gilbert-Ash (Northern) Ltd [1974] AC 689 per Lord Diplock at 717H and Triple Point Technology Inc v PTT Public Co Ltd [2021] UKSC 29; [2021] AC 1148 per Lord Leggatt at paras 106–110. Although the agreement was governed by Swiss law, it was submitted that the presumption pre-dated the SIA 1978 and must be assumed to have been intended by Parliament to apply. 68. “In my judgment, however, there is no justification for putting any gloss on the words of section 13(3). The subsection requires the written consent of the state concerned, such consent being ‘expressed so as to apply to a limited extent or generally’ by the words used. The task of the court is therefore to determine whether and to what extent the state gave (that is, expressed) its consent by construing the words used according to the law applicable to that exercise, in the present case, Swiss law. Once the court has determined that the state’s consent for the giving of the relief in question was expressed by the written words, section 13(3) is satisfied. As it is common ground that there is no need to use the word ‘consent’ or any other specific wording, it is unclear what would be required, beyond that the words used express consent, for that consent to be regarded as ‘express’. Further, given that words will not be construed as giving consent if they express an intention which is unclear or equivocal, there appears to be no scope for an additional requirement for ‘clear words’.” Phillips LJ went on to state (at paras 34–35) that the same analysis applies to section 2(2) of the SIA 1978 and to cite his conclusion in the Court of Appeal in the present proceedings (at para 92): “If the express words used amount, on their proper construction, to an unequivocal agreement by the state to submit to the jurisdiction, that is sufficient to satisfy section 2(2) of the SIA, even if the words ‘submit’ and ‘waiver’ are not used.” We agree with the reasoning and conclusion of Phillips LJ. We consider that a waiver of immunity by treaty requires a clear and unequivocal expression of the state’s consent to the exercise of jurisdiction. Whether this exists depends upon an exercise of treaty interpretation in accordance with the treaty’s governing law, public international law. For this purpose, the relevant rules of interpretation are to be found in articles 31 and 32 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties. Such an expression of consent does not require explicit words such as waiver or submission. Meaning is conveyed not only by the express words used but also by what is necessarily inherent in those words, and by what necessarily follows as a consequence of the use of those words. Accordingly, when considering the waiver of state immunity by treaty, the test is whether the words used necessarily lead to the conclusion that the state has submitted to the jurisdiction. 70. Pinochet (No 3) provides a striking example of the application of such an approach. We consider that the ratio of Pinochet (No 3) is that, as between states party to the Convention against Torture, that Convention excludes the operation of immunity ratione materiae. Four of the Law Lords (Lord Browne-Wilkinson at 205C-F; Lord Saville of Newdigate at 266D, 266H-277B, 267F-G; Lord Millett at 277D-E, 277H-278B; Lord Phillips of Worth Matravers at 290E-G) considered that, since the offence of torture established by the Convention is limited to offences of torture committed in an official capacity, every case would otherwise be met by a plea of immunity. The immunity would be exactly coextensive with the offence. In these circumstances the parties to the Convention against Torture must be taken to have decided that immunity ratione materiae should not be available. (In this regard we agree with the judgment of the Criminal Division of the Court of Appeal in R v Lama [2014] EWCA Crim 1729, [2017] QB 1171 at paras 30–35.) The fact that the four Law Lords reached this conclusion by different routes—Lord Saville was the only one to hold that this was an express waiver—is immaterial. What matters for present purposes is that a majority concluded that the express terms of the Convention against Torture could convey an unequivocal agreement that immunity ratione materiae should not apply to acts of official torture. They considered that it was a necessary consequence of the express provisions of the Convention against Torture requiring contracting states to criminalise and establish jurisdiction over acts of official torture that those states accepted that there was no immunity ratione materiae in respect of such conduct. 71. A further example of such reasoning, but in a different context, is provided by the judgment of the ICJ in Application of the Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide (Bosnia and Herzegovina v Serbia and Montenegro) Judgment [2007] ICJ Rep 43. The terms of the Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide (“the Genocide Convention”) do not in so many words impose an obligation on contracting parties not to commit genocide. Article I on its face requires contracting parties only to prevent and punish the crime of genocide. The ICJ nevertheless derived from the express obligations a duty not to commit genocide. “Under Article I the States parties are bound to prevent such an act, which it describes as ‘a crime under international law’, being committed. The Article does not expressis verbis require States to refrain from themselves committing genocide. However, in the view of the Court, taking into account the established purpose of the Convention, the effect of Article I is to prohibit States from themselves committing genocide. Such a prohibition follows, first, from the fact that the Article categorizes genocide as ‘a crime under international law’: by agreeing to such a categorization, the States parties must logically be undertaking not to commit the act so described. Secondly, it follows from the expressly stated obligation to prevent the commission of acts of genocide. That obligation requires the States parties, inter alia, to employ the means at their disposal, in circumstances to be described more specifically later in this Judgment, to prevent persons or groups not directly under their authority from committing an act of genocide or any of the other acts mentioned in Article III. It would be paradoxical if States were thus under an obligation to prevent, so far as within their power, commission of genocide by persons over whom they have a certain influence, but were not forbidden to commit such acts through their own organs, or persons over whom they have such firm control that their conduct is attributable to the State concerned under international law. In short, the obligation to prevent genocide necessarily implies the prohibition of the commission of genocide.” (at para 166) As a result, it is not necessary to consider in this judgment the circumstances in which terms may be implied more widely into treaties. VI The interpretation of the ICSID Convention Having addressed the test to be applied in domestic law pursuant to section 2(2) of the SIA 1978, the next question is whether and, if so, to what extent the appellant states are to be treated as having waived state immunity and submitted to the adjudicative jurisdiction of the courts of other contracting states (including the UK) in proceedings to recognise and enforce ICSID awards, by becoming signatories to the ICSID Convention (and in particular article 54). The answer to that question depends on the proper interpretation of articles 53 to 55 of the ICSID Convention, interpreted in accordance with customary international law principles on treaty interpretation as codified in the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties. 74. As already stated, the relevant principles of interpretation are those set out in articles 31 and 32 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties which provide materially as follows: “Article 31 General rule of interpretation A treaty shall be interpreted in good faith in accordance with the ordinary meaning to be given to the terms of the treaty in their context and in the light of its object and purpose . . . There shall be taken into account, together with the context: (a) . . . (b) any subsequent practice in the application of the treaty which establishes the agreement of the parties regarding its interpretation; (c) any relevant rules of international law applicable in the relations between the parties . . . Article 32 Supplementary means of interpretation Recourse may be had to supplementary means of interpretation, including the preparatory work of the treaty and the circumstances of its conclusion, in order to confirm the meaning resulting from the application of article 31, or to determine the meaning when the interpretation according to article 31: (a) leaves the meaning ambiguous or obscure; (b) leads to a result which is manifestly absurd or unreasonable.” Article 31 thus requires the terms of a treaty to be interpreted in good faith in accordance with their ordinary meaning, in their context, and in the light of the treaty’s object and purpose. A holistic approach is required. Context and object and purpose may be found in the treaty’s text, in other words its surrounding provisions, and in the treaty as a whole, including its preamble. The clear focus of article 31 is, accordingly, on seeking to ascertain the ordinary meaning of the relevant terms of the treaty having regard to context, object and purpose of the treaty as a “single combined operation”: see JTI Polska sp. z o.o. v Jakubowski [2024] AC 621 (para 26, per Lord Hamblen); and Maritime Delimitation in the Indian Ocean (Somalia v Kenya) [2017] ICJ Rep 3, para 64. Article 32 allows for recourse to supplementary material for limited purposes only, emphasising that the court’s task is to interpret the treaty rather than the supplementary material. Where the ordinary meaning of treaty terms can be ascertained by applying the primary rule in article 31 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, recourse to supplementary means of interpretation under article 32 is permitted only “in order to confirm” that ordinary meaning. Such confirmation can be drawn from the travaux préparatoires. However, the supplementary means of interpretation in article 32 cannot be used to change or contradict the meaning resulting from the application of article 31. Where, however, the application of the rule in article 31 produces a meaning that is ambiguous or obscure or leads to a manifestly absurd or unreasonable result, the rule in article 32 permits supplementary means to be used to determine the meaning of treaty terms. But such cases “should be rare, and only where two conditions are fulfilled, first, that the material involved is public and accessible, and secondly, that the travaux préparatoires clearly and indisputably point to a definite legislative intention” (Fothergill v Monarch Airlines [1981] AC 251, 278B-C per Lord Wilberforce; and also Effort Shipping Co Ltd v Linden Management S.A. and others [1998] AC 605, 623E per Lord Steyn). Article 17(1) of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties provides that: “Without prejudice to articles 19 to 23 [the provisions on reservations], the consent of a State to be bound by part of a treaty is effective only if the treaty so permits or the other contracting States so agree”. In the absence of a provision specifically authorising states to consent to a part or parts only of a treaty or to exclude certain parts, the established rule is that the consent must relate to the treaty as a whole, and a purported partial consent is regarded as no consent at all: see Oppenheim’s International Law, pp 1232–1233; Corten and Klein (eds), Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties: A Commentary (2011), p 364. It also follows that, in general, a state’s consent to be bound by a treaty reflects its acceptance of the other parties to that treaty being bound by the obligations contained therein in relation to the first state. Finally, it is well-established that the text of an international treaty or convention is intended to be given the same uniform meaning by all the states which become parties to it. This means that so far as possible the text should be interpreted in a uniform manner and that regard should be had to how it has been interpreted by the courts of different countries, particularly where there is consensus among national courts in relation to the question of interpretation: see, for example, Islam v Secretary of State for the Home Department [1999] 2 AC 629, 657A–B, per Lord Hope of Craighead. Ordinary meaning of articles 53 to 55 of the ICSID Convention Applying the approach set out in article 31, the starting point is the words of articles 53 to 55 of the ICSID Convention (these articles are set out above at para 39). Article 53(1) contains an agreement (in writing) by each contracting party that awards rendered under the ICSID Convention shall be final and binding. Each party agrees to abide by and comply with the terms of such an award except to the extent that enforcement is stayed. Subject to that (and there is no extant stay of enforcement in either of these appeals) article 53 is directed at achieving finality and an enforcing court cannot re-examine the award on its merits or refuse enforcement (in the sense used in the ICSID Convention) on grounds of public policy. 82. Under article 54(1) each contracting state is obliged to recognise as binding and enforce the pecuniary obligations of an award rendered pursuant to the ICSID Convention as if it were a final judgment of its own courts. It follows that, upon becoming party to the ICSID Convention, a contracting state not only assumes that obligation to recognise and enforce ICSID awards but also consents to the fact that all other contracting states are undertaking the same obligation. As a matter of ordinary language, each contracting state therefore agrees by article 54(1) not only that it will recognise and enforce awards, but also that awards to which it is a party will be recognised and enforced in other contracting states which have undertaken the same obligation. Thus, the United Kingdom has agreed with the other contracting states that it will recognise any ICSID award as if it were a final judgment of its own domestic courts, and the appellant states have agreed to the United Kingdom doing so, and agreed with all contracting states, including the United Kingdom, that this is the United Kingdom’s obligation. On the face of it, this is inconsistent with the preservation of adjudicative immunity. The contracting state’s obligation to recognise and enforce in article 54(1) may require the taking of certain formal steps but the ICSID Convention does not prescribe the machinery to achieve this, leaving it to the contracting states to determine, save only that article 54(2) sets out a formal procedural requirement on the party seeking recognition and enforcement to provide a copy of the award certified as authentic by the Secretary-General to the designated domestic court. The High Court is designated for this purpose by the 1966 Act, and it is contemplated that it will honour the United Kingdom’s international obligations in this respect. These articles draw no distinction between states parties and investor parties and plainly apply to both. On the face of it, the appellant states have agreed that the respondent investors are entitled to have their ICSID awards recognised in the United Kingdom and enforced under domestic law against them as if each were a judgment of the High Court. The High Court is obliged to recognise these awards and enforce them as if they were judgments. This does not affect the position as regards immunity from execution as discussed below. Execution is dealt with in article 54(3) which provides that the available processes of execution will be those in the law of the state where enforcement is sought. This provision does not limit the obligation on contracting states to enforce awards which is to be governed by the domestic laws in force concerning execution of judgments in the forum state in which execution is sought (here, England). Article 55 contains a clarificatory saving for immunity, providing that nothing in article 54 derogates from state immunity from execution. 87. While the line between enforcement and execution may not be clear and neither term is defined (a perhaps unsurprising feature of the scheme given that the work on drafting these articles was carried out “under great time pressure and is described by Broches [the General Counsel of the World Bank and chairman of the negotiations] as being characterized by great fluidity, sometimes bordering on confusion”—see Stephan W. Schill and others, Schreuer’s Commentary on the ICSID Convention, 3rd ed (2022), p 1493, para 80), the scheme of these articles draws a sharp distinction between recognition and enforcement on the one hand (article 54(1) and (2)) and execution on the other (articles 54(3) and 55). It follows that the award must first be recognised and only after that stage has been completed can any execution steps be taken. The immunity from execution is not an immunity from the prior step involved in having the award recognised in domestic law and domestic laws on immunity from execution can only be applied if the domestic courts first have jurisdiction. The preservation of state immunity in article 55 extends only to execution and does not concern the earlier steps including recognition. Accordingly, the obligation to recognise and enforce an arbitral award is limited to steps up to but not including the obligation to ensure execution if that is barred by a claim to state immunity. 88. It is significant that only immunity from execution is expressly preserved in this scheme. The absence of any preservation of adjudicative immunity in articles 53–55 accords entirely with the obligations in article 54(1) being fundamentally inconsistent with the maintenance of such immunity from adjudicative jurisdiction because the obligation to recognise and enforce an arbitral award as binding necessarily involves an exercise of adjudicative jurisdiction that must have overcome any jurisdictional bar to the exercise of that jurisdiction. Put another way, once there is a binding award, recognised and to be enforced like a final judgment, adjudication has already taken place and the scope for reliance on immunity from adjudicative jurisdiction has passed. It follows that the reciprocal obligations on each contracting state in article 54(1) are inconsistent with the maintenance by contracting states of any such immunity from adjudicative jurisdiction. On the face of it, the terms of article 54(1) mean that there is a waiver of reliance on state immunity. The waiver follows from the fact that each contracting state has agreed that all other contracting states are obliged to (“Each Contracting State shall”) recognise and enforce ICSID awards, including as against them in the territories of those other contracting states. These are obligations undertaken on a mutual and reciprocal basis. That necessarily involves an express acceptance by each contracting state that if an ICSID award is rendered against it, then every other contracting state must exercise jurisdiction, if requested, to recognise and enforce that award. Mr Bastin sought to avoid this result by suggesting that it is unnecessary for one state to consent to another acquiring obligations under a treaty. In his submission contracting states (eg the United Kingdom) can and did acquire obligations under the ICSID Convention without the consent of other contracting states (eg Spain). Spain may have recognised this but did not agree to it. But this submission ignores the fact that consent to a treaty by a contracting state is consent to the application of all provisions of the treaty as between itself and other contracting states, subject only to any permissible reservations that the treaty allows (see article 17(1) of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties). Nor is there any sustainable basis for limiting the application of article 54(1) to the recognition and enforcement of awards against private investors by the courts of the contracting state itself, as the appellant states sought to argue. Article 53 makes clear that each party, which includes each contracting state, “shall abide by and comply with the terms of the award”, except to the extent to which the terms are stayed. Article 54 then imposes the obligation to recognise and enforce arbitral awards as final and binding without any distinction being drawn between awards against private investors and against host contracting states. 92. Furthermore, recognition and enforcement proceedings will in all, or almost all, cases involve the courts of one contracting state exercising adjudicative jurisdiction over another contracting state. The appellant states agree that the obligations of other contracting states that are being consented to are obligations to bring about a required result: their courts must recognise and enforce the pecuniary obligations of ICSID awards as if they are final judgments. They are wrong therefore to assert that article 54(1) is limited to imposing an obligation to create a domestic mechanism for recognition and enforcement. Contracting states must use existing or newly established mechanisms to achieve the required result, namely, to recognise and enforce awards as if they are final judgments. They must achieve that result in all cases, not just in some cases. To do that there must be an exercise of adjudicative jurisdiction by the forum state. Put another way, a contracting state (such as Spain or Zimbabwe) cannot simultaneously agree that the United Kingdom “shall” recognise and enforce an ICSID award rendered against them, whilst also claiming immunity from recognition and enforcement that would prevent the United Kingdom from complying with its own ICSID obligations. The obligations to recognise and enforce consented to by the contracting states are therefore inconsistent with the maintenance of immunity. This conclusion does not involve reading in words or implying terms into article 54(1) of the ICSID Convention. The submission to jurisdiction on a reciprocal basis is deduced from the ordinary meaning of the express and unequivocal terms of article 54(1). On the face of the express words of article 54(1), consent to this provision could not be a clearer submission to the jurisdiction. Just as the Supreme Court held in NML (at para 128) that Argentina’s agreement that a judgment against it “may be enforced … in any … courts to the jurisdiction of which the republic is or may be subject” was the “clearest possible waiver of immunity because Argentina was or might be subject to the jurisdiction of the English court” the same approach adopted here leads to the same conclusion. This was also the approach described by Lord Saville in Pinochet (No 3) at 267F-G, where he explained that the express terms of the Convention against Torture demonstrated that the states who had become parties had clearly and unambiguously agreed that official torture should now be dealt with in a way which would otherwise amount to an interference in their sovereignty (see para 55 above). It is also consistent with the process of deduction described in Bosnia v Serbia discussed at para 71 above. In the present case the reciprocal operation of article 54(1) is readily apparent from the meaning of the express words and it is not necessary to resort to implication of terms. 96. The appellant states submit that even if they had consented to other contracting states undertaking an obligation to recognise and enforce ICSID awards, that does not mean that they submitted to the jurisdiction of the courts of other contracting states. In this regard they rely on the decision of the ICJ in the Case concerning the Arrest Warrant of 11 April 2000 (Democratic Republic of the Congo v Belgium) (2002) ICJ Rep 1. The ICJ stated (at para 59): “It should further be noted that the rules governing the jurisdiction of national courts must be carefully distinguished from those governing jurisdictional immunities: jurisdiction does not imply absence of immunity, while absence of immunity does not imply jurisdiction.” The ICJ was here making the important point that jurisdiction and immunity are two distinct concepts. It went on to explain that although various international conventions for the prevention and punishment of certain serious crimes impose on states obligations of prosecution or extradition, thereby requiring them to extend their criminal jurisdiction, such extension of jurisdiction in no way affects immunities under customary international law, including those of Ministers for Foreign Affairs. Clearly, an acceptance of jurisdiction does not necessarily in every case carry with it a waiver of immunity. However, this does not assist the appellant states in the present case. This is not a case where a state agrees that another state shall have jurisdiction but reserves its immunity. On the contrary, there is an agreement that every other contracting state will enforce the pecuniary obligations imposed by an award within its territories as if it were a final judgment of a court in that state. That refers to the end result of the adjudicative process. In order to reach that point immunity must necessarily have been overcome. The treaty context reinforces our conclusions about the ordinary meaning of article 54(1) as a clear and unequivocal waiver of adjudicative immunity by state parties. Article 54 is part of a self-contained or closed scheme for producing binding awards. A notable feature of the scheme (as the Supreme Court described it in Micula) is that “once the authenticity of an award is established, a domestic court before which recognition is sought may not re-examine the award on its merits. Similarly, a domestic court may not refuse to enforce an authenticated ICSID award on grounds of national or international public policy. In this respect, the ICSID Convention differs significantly from the New York Convention on the Recognition and Enforcement of Foreign Arbitral Awards 1958” (para 68). Contracting states may not refuse recognition or enforcement of an award on grounds covered by the challenge provisions in the ICSID Convention itself (articles 50-52) or on the basis of jurisdiction or competence (article 41(2)). In Micula the Supreme Court explained that article 54(3) (concerned with execution of awards) does not limit the obligation of contracting states to enforce awards (para 76). It recognised that there may be scope for some additional defences against enforcement in exceptional or extraordinary circumstances, if national law recognises them in respect of final judgments of national courts and if they do not directly overlap with the grounds of challenge specifically reserved to ICSID tribunals under articles 50 to 52 of the ICSID Convention (para 78). 101. The Supreme Court in Micula also emphasised the fact that the obligations (in articles 53, 54 and 69) are expressed in unqualified terms without distinguishing between the persons (private investors or states) to whom they are owed; and (at para 104) that obligations to comply with the ICSID Convention scheme are owed by all contracting states to the community of contracting states: It is clear that the specific duties in articles 54 and 69 of the ICSID Convention are owed to all other contracting states. The Convention scheme is one of mutual trust and confidence which depends on the participation and compliance of every contracting state. The importance within this scheme of the effective recognition and enforcement of awards is apparent from the Preamble which emphasises the requirement that any arbitral award be complied with”. Moreover, as the Supreme Court explained at para 106, “failure of any contracting state to enforce an award in accordance with article 54 would undermine the Convention scheme on which investors and contracting states all rely. This points to a network of mutual enforcement obligations.” Article 27 supports this. It confirms that the obligation on a contracting state against whom an arbitration award is made to comply with the award is not just owed to the other parties to the dispute, since it recognises that any contracting state whose national is involved in the dispute may bring an international claim against the other contracting state if it fails to comply with the award rendered. Recognition and enforcement are no guarantee of payment given that domestic laws on immunity from execution continue to apply and may prevent an investor from obtaining satisfaction. The requirement on each contracting state in article 69 to take “such legislative or other measures as may be necessary for making the provisions of this Convention effective in its territories” shows that the scheme is concerned with achieving the intended result, namely an arbitral award recognised and treated as a final judgment, and not simply with an obligation to set up the mechanism to do so. The appellant states’ contention that the ICSID Convention operates perfectly well without any waiver of adjudicative immunity because the primary remedy against non-complying states is at the public international law level is misplaced. That a separate route for resolution of disputes between contracting states is provided by article 64 of the ICSID Convention (which permits an aggrieved state to refer the dispute to the ICJ) simply underlines the fact that there cannot have been any absolute assumption that states would comply with their Convention obligations thereby avoiding any need for parity of obligations as between investors and host states. In any event, article 64 is necessary in order to provide a remedy where there is an infringement of the obligations owed by contracting states party to all other contracting states. Object and purpose 106. A primary purpose of the ICSID Convention was to encourage the flow of private investment in sovereign states by offering assurances against sovereign risk in the host state absent satisfactory dispute settlement mechanisms. This is reflected in the first to third paragraphs of the ICSID Convention’s preamble (see para 30 above). It is also clear from the summary record of proceedings of the first consultative meeting at Addis Ababa where the Chairman, Mr Broches, is recorded repeating the concern of developing countries that one of the most serious impediments to the flow of private capital was “the fear of investors that their investment would be exposed to political risks such as outright expropriation, government interference and non-observance by the host government of contractual undertakings on the basis of which the investment had been made” (see History of the ICSID Convention: Documents Concerning the Origin and the Formulation of the Convention on the Settlement of Investment Disputes between States and Nationals of Other States (1968), vol II-1 at p 240). The object was therefore to create a system for the international arbitration of investment disputes between states and foreign investors, that would produce binding awards supported by a fully reciprocal regime to ensure compliance and increase mutual trust and confidence: see the fourth to sixth paragraphs of the preamble (above at para 30) and Micula paras 104 and 106. The sixth paragraph of the preamble is a particularly strong indicator of this purpose, recognising “that mutual consent by the parties to submit such disputes to … arbitration … constitutes a binding agreement which requires … any arbitral award be complied with.” In this statement “parties” means the parties to the arbitration agreement, not state parties, which are referred to as Contracting States. Again, this strongly indicates the purpose is to achieve a result. The importance of the need for reciprocity and mutual enforcement obligations is plain. Contracting states signed up to the ICSID Convention in good faith, agreeing to such binding obligations. Moreover, as already explained, a significant feature of the scheme is that once the authenticity of an award is established, a domestic court before which recognition is sought may not re-examine the award on its merits, or the fairness and propriety of the proceedings and may not refuse to enforce. Pinochet (No 3) provides a closely analogous example of the object and purpose of a treaty influencing its interpretation. Four members of the Appellate Committee considered that immunity ratione materiae would be incompatible with the object and purpose of the Convention against Torture. 110. “Under the Convention the international crime of torture can only be committed by an official or someone in an official capacity. They would all be entitled to immunity. It would follow that there can be no case outside Chile in which a successful prosecution for torture can be brought unless the State of Chile is prepared to waive its right to its official’s immunity. Therefore, the whole elaborate structure of universal jurisdiction over torture committed by officials is rendered abortive and one of the main objectives of the Torture Convention — to provide a system under which there is no safe haven for torturers — will have been frustrated. In my judgment all these factors together demonstrate that the notion of continued immunity for ex-heads of state is inconsistent with the provisions of the Torture Convention.” “So far as the states that are parties to the Convention are concerned, I cannot see how, so far as torture is concerned, this immunity can exist consistently with the terms of that Convention. Each state party has agreed that the other state parties can exercise jurisdiction over alleged official torturers found within their territories, by extraditing them or referring them to their own appropriate authorities for prosecution; and thus to my mind can hardly simultaneously claim an immunity from extradition or prosecution that is necessarily based on the official nature of the alleged torture.” 112. “The definition of torture, both in the Convention and section 134, is in my opinion entirely inconsistent with the existence of a plea of immunity ratione materiae. The offence can be committed only by or at the instigation of or with the consent or acquiescence of a public official or other person acting in an official capacity. The official or governmental nature of the act, which forms the basis of the immunity, is an essential ingredient of the offence. No rational system of criminal justice can allow an immunity which is coextensive with the offence.” “My Lords, the Republic of Chile was a party to the Torture Convention, and must be taken to have assented to the imposition of an obligation on foreign national courts to take and exercise criminal jurisdiction in respect of the official use of torture. I do not regard it as having thereby waived its immunity. In my opinion there was no immunity to be waived. The offence is one which could only be committed in circumstances which would normally give rise to the immunity. The international community had created an offence for which immunity ratione materiae could not possibly be available. International law cannot be supposed to have established a crime having the character of a jus cogens and at the same time to have provided an immunity which is coextensive with the obligation it seeks to impose.” 113. “Each state party is required to make such conduct [official torture under article 1 of the Convention against Torture] criminal under its law, wherever committed. More pertinently, each state party is required to prosecute any person found within its jurisdiction who has committed such an offence, unless it extradites that person for trial for the offence in another state. The only conduct covered by this Convention is conduct which would be subject to immunity ratione materiae, if such immunity were applicable. The Convention is thus incompatible with the applicability of immunity ratione materiae. There are only two possibilities. One is that the states parties to the Convention proceeded on the premise that no immunity could exist ratione materiae in respect of torture, a crime contrary to international law. The other is that the states parties to the Convention expressly agreed that immunity ratione materiae should not apply in the case of torture. I believe that the first of these alternatives is the correct one, but either must be fatal to the assertion by Chile and Senator Pinochet of immunity in respect of extradition proceedings based on torture.” In each case the conclusion was reached by deduction from the express provisions of the Convention against Torture having regard to their object and purpose. The same process operates in the present case. 115. The response of the appellant states is that Pinochet (No 3) is an extreme case in that to uphold immunity ratione materiae in cases of official torture under the Convention against Torture would have defeated the entire purpose of the Convention. They point to the observations in Pinochet (No 3) that to uphold immunity ratione materiae in those circumstances would reduce the law to incoherence. They submit that an agreement to exercise jurisdiction can only be a waiver of immunity if otherwise the treaty would be deprived of all effect. By contrast, they submit, upholding the immunity of the appellant states in the present case would not deny all effet utile to the provisions of ICSID. In particular, Mr Moollan on behalf of Zimbabwe submitted that ICSID could operate effectively and would have purpose and effect even if contracting states were not taken to have waived their immunity. Here, he relied on a number of matters. First, it would achieve what he maintained was the primary purpose of ICSID by providing a remedy for states against investors in the domestic courts of the state where the investors operate. Secondly, it would operate against a respondent state in its own jurisdiction. Thirdly, it may operate in third states depending on the domestic rules of state immunity applying there. Fourthly, article 64 of ICSID provides an alternative remedy against states. 116. It is correct that Pinochet (No 3) was an extreme case in that the immunity contended for would have been coextensive with the offence of official torture. To uphold immunity ratione materiae for official torture would have prevented prosecutions for official torture save in the unlikely event that the state in question waived the immunity. However, it does not follow that an agreement to exercise jurisdiction can only be a waiver of immunity if otherwise the treaty would entirely defeat the object and purpose of the treaty and deprive it of all effect. As we have demonstrated, the existence of immunity in the circumstances of the present case would be incompatible with a major object of the ICSID Convention, namely, to encourage investment by providing protection against sovereign risk. The immunity contended for would render valueless the protection which article 54(1) is intended to provide by making enforceable the pecuniary obligations imposed by an award as if it were a final judgment of a court in a contracting state. In this respect, the present case may not be as strong as Pinochet (No 3) but it is still compelling. 117. In another respect, however, the present case is stronger than Pinochet (No 3), as was pointed out by Philippa Webb in her oral submissions on behalf of Infrastructure. In Pinochet (No 3) the Convention against Torture obliged each contracting state to make official torture an offence under its criminal law (article 4), to establish jurisdiction over such offences in specified circumstances including when the alleged offender is present in its territory (article 5) and, where an alleged offender is found in its territory, to extradite him or to submit the case to its competent authorities for the purpose of prosecution (article 7). Article 7 leaves a discretion to the authorities of each contracting state to decide whether or not to exercise the jurisdiction. By contrast the obligation on contracting states under article 54(1) of ICSID is one of result: to recognise an award as binding and to “enforce the pecuniary obligations imposed by that award within its territories as if it were a final judgment of a court in that State”. Furthermore, that obligation to treat an award as a judgment, the final product of the judicial process, is entirely incompatible with immunity from that judicial process. In the result, we are satisfied that the meaning of article 54(1) is clear when interpreted in accordance with article 31 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties. Article 54(1) is a clear and unequivocal submission to the adjudicative jurisdiction of the English courts for the purposes of recognising and enforcing the arbitral awards against Spain and Zimbabwe in these proceedings. This conclusion is entirely consistent with the object and purpose of the ICSID Convention which was to preserve state immunity only in respect of execution while providing for mandatory recognition and enforcement in respect of all parties, investors and states alike. Supplementary means of interpretation The meaning derived from the article 31 exercise is clear. It follows that to have recourse to supplementary means of interpretation, including the travaux préparatoires, is not necessary. Were we to do so in these circumstances, it could only be to confirm the meaning arrived at from the article 31 exercise. In fact, having considered the travaux préparatoires with care, we are satisfied that they do confirm that consent to article 54(1) constitutes a waiver of immunity from the adjudicative jurisdiction of other contracting states. Throughout the preparatory stages the overarching intention was that awards (including awards against states) would be treated in each contracting state as final judgments and enforced as such. There was a concern that this process should not be interpreted as removing state immunity against execution if such immunity was otherwise conferred on the foreign state by the law of the forum state. But this was addressed by the introduction of article 55 by way of clarification and the avoidance of doubt. First, Mr Moollan for Zimbabwe relied on what he claimed was a consensus among the delegates at the consultative meetings that the law of state immunity would be unaffected by article 54. However, when the relevant travaux préparatoires are read in context it becomes clear that they are concerned with immunity from execution and not immunity from adjudicative jurisdiction, the subject matter of the present appeal. 123. The original draft section which became article 54 did not expressly preserve immunity from execution (ICSID, History of the ICSID Convention (1968), vol-II-1, Doc 21 (9 August 1963) “Annotated First Preliminary Draft Convention”, p 161, section 15). A series of consultative meetings was held in Addis Ababa (December 1963), Santiago de Chile (February 1964), Geneva (February 1964) and Bangkok (April to May 1964) to consider the Preliminary Draft Convention. The issue of state immunity from execution was discussed in those meetings and resulted in the addition of what became article 55. The first draft of that article referred to immunity from execution only and the language remained unchanged (History, vol-II-1, Doc 43 (11 September 1964) “Draft Convention: Working Paper for the Legal Committee”, pp 636–637). Mr Aron Broches explained at the Addis Ababa meeting that: “…where, as in most countries, the law of State Immunity from execution would prevent enforcement against a State as opposed to execution against a private party, the Convention would leave the law unaffected. All the Convention would do would be to place an arbitral award rendered pursuant to it on the same footing as a final judgment of the national Courts. If such judgment could be enforced under the domestic law in question, so could the award; if that judgment could not be so enforced, neither could the award.” (History, vol-II-1, Doc 25 (30 April 1964) “Summary Record of Proceedings, Addis Ababa Consultative Meetings of Legal Experts, December 16-20, 1963” p 242) 124. At the Santiago meeting, the representatives from Jamaica and the United States expressed concern that the doctrine of state immunity be maintained (History, vol-II-1, Doc 27 (12 June 1964) “Summary Record of Proceedings, Santiago Consultative Meetings of Legal Experts, February 3-7, 1964”, p 343). Mr Broches at the Geneva meeting recalled this exchange and made the following observation: “…the intention was not to modify the existing law on State immunity. The view had been expressed at the Santiago meeting that Section 15 [which became Article 54] as now drafted would force a modification in State practice and law on the question of a State’s immunity from execution. He thought this view unfounded, but an express proviso removing any doubt as to the intent of the section might be inserted… The lack of uniformity in State practice, concerning the immunity of other States from execution had convinced him that it would be preferable to refrain from attempting to legislate either positively or negatively in Sections 14 and 15.” (History, vol-II-1, Doc 29 (1 June 1964) “Summary Record of Proceedings, Geneva Consultative Meetings of Legal Experts, February 17-22, 1963”, pp 428–429) 125. The position is summed up by the Report of the Executive Directors on the ICSID Convention which states in respect of Article 54 and 55: “43. The doctrine of sovereign immunity may prevent the forced execution in a State of judgments obtained against foreign States or against the State in which execution is sought. Article 54 requires Contracting States to equate an award rendered pursuant to the Convention with a final judgment of its own courts. It does not require them to go beyond that and to undertake forcible execution of awards rendered pursuant to the Convention in cases in which final judgments could not be executed. In order to leave no doubt on this point Article 55 provides that nothing in Article 54 shall be construed as derogating from the law in force in any Contracting State relating to immunity of that State or of any foreign State from execution.” (History, vol-II-2, Doc 145, “Convention on the Settlement of Investment Disputes between States and Nationals of Other States and Accompanying Report of the Executive Directors”, p 1083). Secondly, nothing in the travaux préparatoires directly addresses the waiver of adjudicative immunity. The picture which emerges from the travaux préparatoires is that awards would be enforceable subject only to immunity from execution. See, for instance, the comment of the Italian representative: “that Section 15 was essential and formed a logical link in the system, since it enabled a successful party to seek execution of the award in any Contracting State wherever property of the losing party could be found, subject only to the local laws and procedures on execution of judgments including any law on the immunity of the property of a foreign State from execution…” (History, vol-II-1, Doc 29 (1 June 1964) “Summary Record of Proceedings, Geneva Consultative Meetings of Legal Experts, February 17-22, 1964”, p 430). 127. There is nothing in the references made by counsel to the travaux préparatoires that shows it was contemplated that state immunity would present a barrier to the registration of an award before domestic courts. Rather, Article 54(1) provided a legal basis for execution by treating the award as a final judgment of the national court. It is only when measures are taken to execute the award that immunity arises. At the outset of the negotiations, Mr Broches observed that the draft text: “…was quite a step forward in the recognition of international arbitral awards when compared with the general law in most countries. As to whether forced execution following upon an award could be obtained against a government, that would depend upon the force of a final judgment in the country in which enforcement was sought. In general it would not be possible to enforce a judgment against the State in the sense of seizing its property and selling it in forced execution. But this did not seem to present a major problem. The problem had been that there was doubt as to whether States would accept an award as valid and binding. There were hardly any cases in which there had been difficulty in obtaining compliance with an award once its binding character was clearly established.” (History, vol-II-1, Doc 22 (20 September 1963) “Memorandum of the discussion by the Executive Directors, September 10, 1963, Discussion of the First Preliminary Draft Convention”, pp 177.) The picture is complicated by the conflation of the terms ‘enforcement’ and ‘execution’ by the drafters of the ICSID Convention. However, a reading of the exchanges in the travaux préparatoires concerning state immunity shows that the term ‘enforcement’ is there used to refer to the execution of the award against state assets. Mr Broches also suggested that the intent of the provision might be better expressed if the words “recognize … and enforce it” were substituted by “recognize as enforceable” in what became Article 54(1) (History, vol-II-1, Doc 27 (12 June 1964) “Summary Record of Proceedings, Santiago Consultative Meetings of Legal Experts, February 3-7, 1964”, p 344; History, vol-II-1, Doc 31 (20 July 1964) “Summary Record of Proceedings, Bangkok Consultative Meetings of Legal Experts, April 27-May 1, 1964”, p 519). It is notable that at the time the Convention was drafted there were few exceptions to immunity from execution (see Schreuer’s Commentary, p 1522, para 18). The travaux préparatoires accordingly reflect the view that execution of the award would not be possible. (See, for example, the observations of Mr Broches (History, vol-II-1, Doc 31, p 522)). The Austrian representative highlighted that in Austria the immunity is relative as opposed to absolute so that an award could be executed under certain circumstances (History, vol-II-2, Doc 46 (24 November 1964) “Austrian Comment on the Draft Convention”, p 671). This statement presupposes that there is no adjudicative immunity precluding the registration of the award, thereby enabling a party to seek execution of the award, subject to the local law on immunity from execution. 130. Thirdly, counsel for the appellant states relied heavily on passages in the travaux préparatoires identifying the principal purpose of article 54 as providing states with recourse to enforce awards against investors (History, vol-II, pp 304, 344, 433, 520, 522). While it is true that one of the main purposes of article 54(1) at the time it was drafted was to enable states to enforce against investors on the footing that states parties would comply with awards in any event—an assumption that has not always been borne out as these proceedings show—the travaux préparatoires show that it was always intended that article 54 would not operate solely in one direction, and that investors would have parity of treatment and the same rights as states under article 54 as regards the entitlement to recognition and enforcement of awards where states lost an arbitration. It was contemplated throughout the negotiations that article 54 would apply to enforcement against states by investors, notwithstanding the expectation that such cases would be uncommon, since states were generally assumed to comply with awards (History, vol-II, pp 10–11, 176–177, 344, 574–575). 131. Two examples make good this point. First, at the discussion of the First Preliminary Draft of the Convention in September 1963, Mr Oellerer requested various clarifications, including asking, as to enforcement of awards, whether it was certain that all awards under the Convention would be enforceable in all contracting states, particularly awards made against a government. As we have seen, Mr Broches responded emphasising that section 15 required each state to recognise an award as binding and enforce it within its territory as if the award were a final judgment of the courts of that state; and stating that this was “quite a step forward in the recognition of international arbitral awards when compared with the general law in most countries”. (History, vol-II-1, Doc 22 (20 September 1963) “Memorandum of the discussion by the Executive Directors, September 10, 1963, Discussion of the First Preliminary Draft Convention”, pp 176–177, cited at para 127 above.) The second passage is from the Santiago meetings in February 1964, where Mr Broches said: “…the principal purpose of Section 15 (although this was not its only effect) was to give States which had been successful plaintiffs a means to enforce awards against investors who did not have assets within the host State's territories. States would be directly bound by the Convention to comply with awards rendered against them, which could not be void of investors. In the unlikely event that a losing State failed to comply with an award it would be in clear violation of the Convention itself, and the State whose national had failed to obtain satisfaction, could take up his case”. (History, vol-II-1, 344) These passages show that it was contemplated from the outset that what became article 54 might be used against states, even if that was not expected to be very common, because it was assumed that states would comply with their treaty obligations. Article 64 of the ICSID Convention underlines the fact that there cannot have been any absolute assumption that states would comply. The passages do not support the position of the appellant states that there cannot have been any agreement to waiver. 133. Our reading of the travaux préparatoires also finds support in Schreuer’s Commentary (at p 1474, para 7) which explains: “all the drafts leading to the Convention refer to recognition and enforcement against the parties in equal terms, without distinguishing between investors and host States, and it is clear that this was also the intention of the drafters…” Indeed, the language of Article 54 applies equally to the recognition and enforcement of awards, whether against investors or states. Furthermore, Article 54 must have been intended to apply to enforcement against states, otherwise there would have been no need to preserve immunity from execution under Article 55. The reciprocal nature of the obligations is reinforced by the sixth paragraph of the preamble as discussed above. We have referred above to the principle of consistent interpretation of international instruments and the intention that the text of international treaties should be interpreted by the courts of all the states parties as having the same meaning. As Lord Hope said in this context in Islam v Secretary of State for the Home Department, “if it could be said that a uniform interpretation was to be found in the authorities, I would regard it as appropriate that we should follow it” (657B). (See also Basfar v Wong [2022] UKSC 20, [2023] AC 33, para 16 per Lords Briggs and Leggatt. Consistency as to how the courts of different states party to a treaty interpret that treaty also motivated Lord Goff’s position in Pinochet (No 3) at 217D, when he referred to the international chaos that would ensue if the courts of different state parties to a treaty reach different conclusions about its meaning.) In fact, as the Court of Appeal observed at para 62, there is broad international consensus as to the meaning and effect of article 54(1) of the ICSID Convention. The courts of Australia, New Zealand, Malaysia, and the United States have all interpreted article 54(1) as a waiver of adjudicative immunity by each contracting state and, where domestically relevant, a submission to jurisdiction. There is one outlier but as we explain below, little weight can properly be attached to that decision. In the decision of the High Court of Australia (“HCA”) in Kingdom of Spain v Infrastructure Services Luxembourg S.à.r.l. [2023] HCA 11, which concerned proceedings by Infrastructure to enforce the same ICSID award against Spain as is in issue here, the High Court of Australia considered whether article 54(1) of the ICSID Convention reflects a waiver of jurisdictional immunity. Spain had argued that article 54(1) only contemplated recognition and enforcement of an arbitral award in three circumstances: against an investor in an Australian court; against the state of Australia in an Australian court; and against a foreign state in an Australian court only if the foreign state chose to waive immunity over the proceeding. Spain argued that the express words of article 54(1) are not sufficiently clear to amount to a waiver of immunity from court processes concerning recognition or enforcement. This submission was rejected as requiring a contorted reading of articles 53 to 55 (para 69). The HCA regarded the textual difficulties with Spain’s primary submission as being compounded when the ordinary meaning of article 54(1) is understood in light of its object and purpose, which includes mitigating sovereign risk (para 71). The HCA concluded that the express terms of article 54(1) involve a waiver of immunity from jurisdiction in relation to recognition and enforcement (para 75). 138. In Sodexo Pass International SAS v Hungary [2021] NZHC 371, Sodexo had investments in Hungary which were adversely affected by tax changes introduced in Hungary in 2010. Sodexo alleged that the changes resulted in an unlawful expropriation of its investments. It obtained an ICSID tribunal award in 2019. Hungary resisted recognition and enforcement of the arbitral award in New Zealand claiming state immunity. Cooke J dismissed Hungary’s claim. He expressed general agreement with the courts of Australia, the USA, and France that “states in the position of Hungary have agreed that an ICSID arbitral award will be recognised as enforceable before domestic courts subject to their ability to claim state immunity in relation to subsequent execution steps” (para 23). Cooke J explained that his conclusion was based on the terms of the ICSID Convention, noting that “the proper meaning of articles 53-55 should be considered together as they are interrelated provisions that involve an overall scheme relating to the enforcement of ICSID arbitral awards” (para 24). In his view, an important feature of the scheme was that each contracting state is obliged to recognise an award as binding and agree to enforce it as if it were a final judgment of its own courts. It followed that Hungary had agreed with contracting states, including New Zealand, that this was New Zealand’s obligation. Hungary was able to claim state immunity under New Zealand law in relation to any execution processes, but that immunity did not prevent the award from first being recognised. Hungary had agreed that the award may be so recognised and had thereby waived any adjudicative immunity it had in relation to recognition (para 25). In Von Pezold v Zimbabwe WA-24NCC-322-07/2021 (27 November 2023), which involved the same expropriated properties in Zimbabwe as the case with which we are concerned, the investors in Border Timbers, the Von Pezold family, sought recognition of the ICSID awards obtained against Zimbabwe in Malaysia. Judge Ahmad in the Kuala Lumpur High Court held that Zimbabwe could not invoke state immunity to avoid recognition and enforcement of the awards as a final judgment under article 54(1), adopting the conclusion of Cooke J in Sodexo Pass on this point (para 37) and further stating that articles 54 and 55 are clear and that by ratifying the ICSID Convention Zimbabwe had acquiesced to contracting states (including Malaysia) recognising the award as a binding domestic court judgment pursuant to article 54 without any right to immunity (paras 40–48). In Blue Ridge Investments LLC v Republic of Argentina (2012) 735 F.3d 72, the United States Court of Appeals, Second Circuit, reached the same conclusion in response to Argentina’s application to dismiss a petition to confirm an arbitral award under the ICSID Convention. The court held (just as it had in an earlier case—Seetransport Wiking Trader Schiffarhtsgesellschaft MBH & Co, Kommanditgesellschaft v Navimpex Centrala Navala (1993) 989 F. 2d 572—where it held that by becoming a contracting state to the Convention on the Recognition and Enforcement of Arbitral Awards (“CFREAA”), the contracting state must have contemplated by the very provisions of the CFREAA enforcement actions in other contracting states) that the same was true of article 54 of the ICSID Convention and Argentina must have contemplated enforcement actions in other contracting states including the United States under the ICSID Convention (p 84). The appellant states rely on Tethyan Copper Company Pty Limited v Islamic Republic of Pakistan BVIHC (Com) 2020/0196, 25 May 2021, a decision of the High Court of the British Virgin Islands, where a claim to state immunity from jurisdiction under article 54(1) was raised for the first time during the hearing and upheld. Wallbank J dealt with the point very briefly. He dismissed the contention that there was a submission to the jurisdiction by agreement in the ICSID Convention itself, holding at para 51: “Moreover, Article 54(1) of the Convention imposes on Pakistan, as a contracting state, an obligation to allow recognition and enforcement of the award before its own courts. Article 54(1) places no obligation on Pakistan, at all, before the BVI courts and so it cannot constitute a waiver by Pakistan of its immunity or anything else.” With respect, this conclusion takes no account of the fact that Pakistan had both agreed to abide by and comply with the terms of an arbitral award under the ICSID Convention (article 53) and consented, by becoming party to the ICSID Convention, to each other contracting state also being under an obligation to recognise an ICSID award as binding and to enforce the pecuniary obligations imposed by it within its territories as if it were a final judgment of a court in that state (article 54(1)). This agreement is clear from these articles as we have already explained and places clear obligations on Pakistan before the courts of other contracting states parties. Other points The appellant states sought faintly to rely on Hansard to discern the purpose of the disputed provision in section 2 of the SIA 1978 or to clarify ambiguities. We can see no proper basis for doing so. The well-established rule in Pepper (Inspector of Taxes) v Hart [1993] AC 593 makes it clear that reference to Parliamentary material as an aid to statutory construction is permitted only where (a) the legislation in question is ambiguous, obscure or leads to absurdity, (b) the material relied on comprises statements by the Minister or other promoter of the bill and (c) the statements relied on are clear and directed at the point in issue. The meaning of the statutory provision is clear and gives rise to no ambiguity, obscurity or absurdity. It is unnecessary to consider (b) and (c) in the circumstances. VII Conclusion It follows that the appeals are dismissed on the first ground. The appellant states have submitted to the jurisdiction by virtue of article 54 of the Convention and consequently, they may not oppose the registration of ICSID awards against them on the grounds of state immunity. This conclusion makes it unnecessary to determine the remaining ground in either appeal and, as we have explained, we were not in the event addressed upon these arguments. Our decision should not be treated as expressing any view either way as to the correctness of the Court of Appeal’s conclusions on issue 2. Finally, the Court of Appeal’s order remitting Zimbabwe’s application to set aside to the Commercial Court for directions as to determination of its non-immunity defences stands. As we have explained, Zimbabwe maintains that these defences would come within the class of exceptional matters recognised in Micula as remaining open by reason of the award being treated like any other final judgment. The defences have not yet been adjudicated upon, and we express no view on their merits.

On TNA: From TNA: The Kingdom of Spain v Infrastructure Services Luxembourg SÀRL and another; Republic of Zimbabwe v Border Timbers Ltd and another

04.03.2026 10:21 👍 0 🔁 0 💬 0 📌 0
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PODCAST: How 40 year old UN principles could help with protecting kids online We hear about the fundamental principles laid out by the UN in the 1980s that could help steer governments through a crisis in children’s online safety.

From Out-Law: PODCAST: How 40 year old UN principles could help with protecting kids online

04.03.2026 01:40 👍 0 🔁 0 💬 0 📌 0
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AlphaBiolabs’ Giving Back initiative supports Reunite International with £500 donation A £500 donation from AlphaBiolabs has been made to the leading UK charity tackling international parental child abduction and the movement of children across international borders. For every testing instruction received from family law and social work professionals, AlphaBiolabs enters the customer’s name into its bimonthly Giving Back draw to ‘win’ a £500 donation for their chosen charity. Sophie […] The post AlphaBiolabs’ Giving Back initiative supports Reunite International with £500 donation appeared first on Venables Legal Resources.

On Venables: AlphaBiolabs’ Giving Back initiative supports Reunite International with £500 donation #Partnerarticlesandnews

03.03.2026 15:52 👍 0 🔁 0 💬 0 📌 0
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From access to understanding: making legal information usable in the age of AI For more than two decades, the legal world has celebrated a major achievement: open access to law. Judgments are available online. Legislation is searchable. The idea that primary legal materials should be publicly available on the internet is no longer controversial in most jurisdictions. But availability is not the same as usability. A database full […] The post From access to understanding: making legal information usable in the age of AI appeared first on Internet for Lawyers Newsletter.

In our Newsletter: From access to understanding: making legal information usable in the age of AI #Legalinformationinstitutes #Openaccess

03.03.2026 09:49 👍 0 🔁 0 💬 0 📌 0
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Child social media ban among new UK proposals Social media platforms could be forced to prevent children from accessing their services under one option for reform the UK government is considering that would impact how social media companies engage with young people.

From Out-Law: Child social media ban among new UK proposals

03.03.2026 01:29 👍 0 🔁 0 💬 0 📌 0
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The risks addressed by child online safety regulation Young people today spend significant time online communicating with friends, completing school assignments, and playing games. Much of the emerging digital regulation globally is driven by the desire to ensure minors under the age of 18 are able to access age-appropriate digital experiences and to protect them from a broad range of risks that may be associated with online activity.

From Out-Law: The risks addressed by child online safety regulation

03.03.2026 01:29 👍 0 🔁 0 💬 0 📌 0
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What the ‘AI Omnibus’ holds for businesses The ‘AI Omnibus’ proposal put forward by the European Commission in November 2025 aims to simplify EU AI Act implementation across the EU and to ensure the related regulatory and administrative burdens falling on businesses are proportionate to their size and the AI risk level.

From Out-Law: What the ‘AI Omnibus’ holds for businesses

28.02.2026 01:30 👍 0 🔁 0 💬 0 📌 0
R v ABJ; R v BDN - Find Case Law - The National Archives The provisions of section 37 of the Criminal Procedure and Investigation Act 1996 apply to the proceedings in these cases. No order has been made in the Crown Court that section 37(1) shall not apply. An order is now made that section 37(1) shall not apply to this judgment. Unless and until any further order is made, only this judgment and that of the Court of Appeal, and those particulars identified in section 37(9) of the 1996 Act, may be reported until the conclusion of both sets of proceedings in the Crown Court. Appellant (ABJ) – UKSC 2025/0079 Michael Mansfield KC Owen Greenhall (Instructed by Hodge Jones & Allen LLP) Appellant (BDN) – UKSC 2025/0059 Henry Blaxland KC Jacob Bindman (Instructed by Tuckers Solicitors) LLP Intervener – Secretary of State for the Home Department Naomi Parsons (Instructed by the Government Legal Department) LORD REED (with whom Lord Sales, Lord Lloyd-Jones, Lord Burrows and Lord Richards agree): In broad terms, these appeals concern the compatibility of section 12(1A) of the Terrorism Act 2000 as amended (“the Terrorism Act”) with the right to freedom of expression protected by article 10 of the European Convention on Human Rights (“the Convention”), as given effect in our domestic law by the Human Rights Act 1998. For the sake of brevity, I shall refer simply to section 12(1A) and article 10. The Court of Appeal certified the following point of law of general public importance as being involved in its decision in each case: “Do the terms of section 12(1A) Terrorism Act 2000 represent a disproportionate interference with the appellant’s rights under article 10 of the European Convention on Human Rights (ECHR)? In the event that they do, is it possible to read down the terms of the offence to render them compatible?” The issues which this court has to decide can be summarised as follows. The first is to establish the matters which have to be proved before there can be a conviction under section 12(1A): that is to say, the ingredients of the offence. The second is to decide whether, and if so under what conditions, a conviction of the offence is compatible with article 10. In particular, the court has to determine whether the Court of Appeal was correct to hold that, where the elements of the offence under section 12(1A) are proved, the interference with the appellants’ article 10 rights constituted by a conviction of the offence will be proportionate. The parties to the appeal are the appellants and the Crown. The Secretary of State for the Home Department, who has responsibility for national security, and in particular for countering terrorism, has also taken part in the appeal as an intervener. Since these appeals are being heard in advance of a trial to be conducted before a jury, the appellants’ names have been anonymised. The first appellant, who has been designated as ABJ, is charged with an offence described in the indictment as “expressing support for a proscribed organisation contrary to section 12(1A) Terrorism Act 2000”. The particulars of the offence are stated as follows: “[The first appellant], on 8 October 2023, expressed an opinion or belief that was supportive of a proscribed organisation, namely Hamas, by giving a speech in Brighton City Centre, being reckless as to whether a person to who[m] the expression was directed would be encouraged [to] support such a proscribed organisation.” 6. As the case has not yet gone to trial, the facts have not been established. However, it is agreed for the purposes of the appeal that on 8 October 2023 the first appellant, a young woman with no previous convictions, gave a speech in Brighton city centre as part of a Palestine Solidarity Campaign event. It lasted approximately four minutes and was in the following terms: “This is not a complex situation. They call it complicated or a conflict to confuse the public. Simply, there is one group that has enormous power backed by the United States and the United Kingdom. Israel is occupying the territory illegally and enacting genocide on the Palestinian population. Israel has never been held accountable for its actions because it has been supported by the West, which leaves Palestinians and its freedom fighters scapegoated as terrorists. There is no symmetry in this relationship. There is no equal power or distribution of equal resources. The audacity of calling for a war is disgraceful because Palestine and people in [Gaza] do not have an army resourced by the world. This is genocide and deliberate wiping out of a population. Bombing [women], children, men in their homes is not an act of self-defence; it is an act of terrorism. “For me, yesterday, yesterday was a victory. As a Palestinian, yesterday was a victory. For freedom fighters and residents to break out of the 15-year blockade so successfully under the inhumane genocide from Israel was so beautiful and inspiring to see. My father rang me in the early morning. He was like … ‘have you seen the news?’ I was like ‘No what’s going on?’ He was like ‘they’ve done it [Arabic]’. He was like ‘they’ve done it, they’ve done it in our lifetime!’ And he’s crying and this is a man who, you know, a strong man. And he’s crying and he’s like ‘I can’t believe I get to see this, I can’t believe my parents—my grandparents—get to see this. I can’t believe you get to see this. It shows us as Palestinians, it shows the world that us as Palestinians that we will always fight and always resist. We need to celebrate these acts of resistance because this is a success.’ “And my mum, my mum rang me afterwards, and she’s crying. And I’m thinking ‘Oh, we’re celebrating right?’ and she’s like ‘this is beautiful and this is so scary’, because she knows what comes next. And every Palestinian knows that this is both a victory and a devastating massacre waiting to happen. And it’s really, really hard to balance the two of them. “‘Violence is wrong’ is what the media have been saying about the Palestinian freedom fighters. And I’m thinking: ‘So you agree? Keeping people trapped, surveillance, starved, denied electricity, water, food, bombed at our occupiers’ will is wrong?’ How can you say it’s wrong when a Palestinian freedom fighter does it but not when an Israeli international-like funded f–ing genocidal people do it? … Like ... it’s hypocrisy! “Revolutionary violence initiated by Palestinians is not terrorism, it is self-defence and it is encouraging the liberation of Palestinian people who have been under illegal occupation for 75 years. “I’m gonna leave you with this. This is not a Muslim issue, this is not an Arab issue, this is not a Palestinian issue … This is a human rights issue.” Police officers present at the demonstration took no action. However, on 12 October 2023 the first appellant was arrested and later charged after edited footage of the speech was published online by the Daily Mail. The first appellant’s case for trial, as outlined in her defence statement, is that when she made her speech she had very limited information regarding events the previous day. In particular, she was not aware that those events were primarily attributed to Hamas. She did not express any opinion or belief that was supportive of a proscribed organisation, namely Hamas, and was not reckless as to whether a person to whom the expression was directed would be encouraged to support Hamas. In particular, she was not aware of a risk that by her act of expression a person to whom the expression was directed would be encouraged to support a proscribed organisation, and any such risk was not an unreasonable one to take in the circumstances as she believed them to be. At a preparatory hearing before the trial judge, HHJ Lodder KC, the defence applied for two rulings. The first was that the prosecution must prove that the first appellant knew that Hamas was a proscribed organisation. The second was that in order to ensure protection of her rights under article 10, the jury must conduct an assessment of the proportionality of a conviction when it considered its verdict. The trial judge ruled against the first appellant on both issues. The first appellant appealed against the ruling to the Court of Appeal, which heard the appeal together with the case of the second appellant. The second appellant, who has been designated as BDN, is also charged with an offence described in the indictment as “expressing support for a proscribed organisation contrary to section 12(1A) Terrorism Act 2000”. The particulars of the offence are stated as follows: “[The second appellant], on 17 October 2023 at Whitehall London did express an opinion or belief that was supportive of a proscribed organisation, namely HAMAS, and in doing so he was reckless as to whether a person to whom the expression was directed would be encouraged to support said proscribed organisation.” As in the case of the first appellant, as the case has not yet gone to trial, the facts have not been established. However, it is agreed for the purposes of this appeal that the indictment arises out of an incident on 17 October 2023. At around 11.30am the second appellant stood outside the gates to Downing Street holding a placard and a small loudhailer. One side of the placard read: “HAMAS is the vanguard of the Resistance—Avi Shlaim”. The other side of the placard read: 12. The second appellant asked a passer-by to film him using the second appellant’s phone. He then set off a short alarm sound on the loudhailer and used it to say: “I support the physical force resistance in Palestine. Cruella Deville, sorry, Suella Fernandez Braverman does not scare me or my brothers. I support armed resistance in Palestine. There’s lots of people talking about horrific things happening there, I’ll leave it for them to talk about it, we can read the newspapers, read history books. But I support armed physical force resistance in the Holy Land.” The film lasts 50 seconds and was never livestreamed or shared by any means. It was later recovered from the second appellant’s phone. A number of members of the public were present. According to the respondent, some of them appear to have been taking note of or listening to the second appellant. He was arrested later that day while holding the placard in another part of Westminster. The respondent’s case for trial, as set out in the case summary served prior to the commencement of proceedings in the Crown Court, is that by referring to “armed resistance” in his speech while holding up a message that referred to both Hamas and resistance, the second appellant was impliedly expressing support for Hamas. The use of a megaphone, together with his choice of location and the time of day, are sufficient to conclude that while he did not explicitly invite support for Hamas, his purpose was to advertise his support, and thereby, at the least, he was reckless as to whether others would be encouraged to support the organisation as well. 14. The second appellant’s case for trial, as outlined in his defence statement, is that in making his speech he was exercising his right to freedom of expression and voicing his opinion that the inhabitants of Palestine are entitled to defend themselves when subject to unlawful attack, as permitted under international law. The quotations he was displaying were from a prominent Israeli historian and a former British Prime Minister, and refer to the futility of trying to destroy Hamas with all the collateral death and destruction that was well underway at the time of the speech. More particularly, the second appellant’s case is that he did not express an opinion supportive of a proscribed organisation, and he was not reckless, in that he was not aware of a risk that by his act of expression a person to whom the expression was directed would be encouraged to support a proscribed organisation, and any such risk was not an unreasonable one to take in the circumstances as he believed them to be. Furthermore, his prosecution for expressing an opinion on a matter of high political importance is a disproportionate interference with his rights under article 10. A preparatory hearing was held at which HHJ Lucraft KC, the Recorder of London, heard argument on a number of submissions made on behalf of the second appellant, including in particular a submission that the proceedings violated his Convention rights under article 10. In that regard, it was argued that the offence created by section 12(1A) was too uncertain to be compatible with article 7 of the Convention or to be “prescribed by law” within the meaning of article 10 of the Convention. It was also argued that the prosecution was a disproportionate interference with the second appellant’s right to freedom of expression, and was therefore incompatible with article 10. The judge rejected the second appellant’s submissions. He held that the offence was clearly defined by law, and that proof of the ingredients of the offence in section 12(1A) was sufficient to ensure the proportionality of a conviction for the purposes of article 10. The second appellant appealed against the ruling to the Court of Appeal. Before the Court of Appeal, it was argued on behalf of the first appellant that the judge should have concluded, first, that the prosecution was required to prove awareness of the fact of proscription; secondly, that the jury should be directed to carry out a freestanding assessment of proportionality under article 10; and thirdly, that the words used in section 12(1A) should be given a “heightened” meaning. It was argued on behalf of the second appellant that the court should make a declaration of incompatibility in respect of section 12(1A), on the basis that the offence was incompatible with articles 7 and 10. Alternatively, it was argued that the jury should be directed to assess proportionality under article 10, and to give a “heightened” meaning to the elements of the offence. The Court of Appeal dismissed both appeals, for reasons explained in a judgment given by Baroness Carr of Walton-on-the-Hill CJ, with which Edis LJ and Murray J agreed: [2024] EWCA Crim 1597; [2025] 1 WLR 1909. The court subsequently certified two points of law of general public importance. The first was set out in para 1 above. The second was the following: “What is the mental element in relation to the offence under section 12(1A) Terrorism Act 2000?” This court subsequently granted permission to appeal on all grounds of appeal relating to the first certified point of law. Permission was refused in respect of the grounds of appeal relating to the second question. The point is however considered below in the course of the discussion of the ingredients of the offence. The Terrorism Act replaced previous counter-terrorism legislation, creating a range of measures applicable to all forms of terrorism, whether connected with Northern Ireland (the original focus of earlier legislation) or other United Kingdom affairs, or international terrorism. It provides the measures considered by Parliament to be necessary to protect the citizens of the United Kingdom against terrorism, and to enable a democratic society to operate without fear. It also contains measures designed to prevent the United Kingdom from being used for the purpose of terrorism outside the jurisdiction. 19. Part I of the Act is introductory, and contains a definition of terrorism. In particular, section 1(1) provides that “terrorism” means the use or threat of action where: the use or threat is designed to influence the government or an international governmental organisation or to intimidate the public or a section of the public, and the use or threat is made for the purpose of advancing a political, religious, racial or ideological cause.” endangers a person’s life, other than that of the person committing the action, creates a serious risk to the health or safety of the public or a section of the public, or is designed seriously to interfere with or seriously to disrupt an electronic system.” Section 1(4) makes it clear that “action” includes action outside the United Kingdom, that a reference to any person or to property includes any person or property wherever situated, that a reference to the public includes the public of a country other than the United Kingdom, and that “the government” includes the government of a country outside the United Kingdom. Part II of the Act is concerned with proscribed organisations. Section 3(1) defines a proscribed organisation as one which is listed in Schedule 2 to the Act, or which operates under the same name as an organisation listed in that Schedule. Section 3(3) enables the Secretary of State to add organisations to Schedule 2, or to remove them from the Schedule, by making an order. By virtue of section 123, such an order must be made by statutory instrument, and cannot normally be made unless a draft has been laid before and approved by a resolution of both Houses of Parliament. In cases of urgency, section 123(5) permits the order to be made without such prior approval, but it then ceases to have effect after 40 days unless a resolution approving the order has been passed by both Houses of Parliament before that period expires. In terms of section 3(4), the Secretary of State can only make an order proscribing an organisation if he believes that it is concerned in terrorism. By virtue of section 3(5), an organisation is concerned in terrorism if it: is otherwise concerned in terrorism.” Hamas is one of the proscribed organisations listed in Schedule 2 to the Terrorism Act. The military wing of Hamas was added to Schedule 2 in 2001, by the Terrorism Act 2000 (Proscribed Organisations) (Amendment) Order 2001, SI 2001/1261, under the name “Hamas-Izz al-Din al-Qassem Brigades”. The entire organisation was proscribed in 2021, by the Terrorism Act 2000 (Proscribed Organisations) (Amendment) (No 3) Order 2021, SI 2021/1318 (“the 2021 Order”), by substituting the name “Harakat al Muqawama al-Islamiyya (Hamas)”. That followed an assessment that there was no sound reason to distinguish between Hamas’s military and political wings. Each order was made only after a draft had been laid before Parliament and approved by a resolution of both Houses. 24. The reasons for proscribing Hamas were explained to Parliament by the Government in the Explanatory Memorandum to the 2021 Order as follows: “7.2 Harakat al Muqawama al-Islamiyya (Hamas) is a militant Islamist movement that was established in 1987, following the first Palestinian intifada. Its ideology is related to that of the Muslim Brotherhood combined with Palestinian nationalism. Its main aims are to liberate Palestine from Israeli occupation, the establishment of an Islamic state under Sharia law and the destruction of Israel (although Hamas no longer demands the destruction of Israel in its Covenant). The group operates in Israel and the Occupied Palestinian Territories. Hamas formally established Hamas IDQ in 1992. Hamas IDQ was proscribed by the UK in March 2001. At the time it was Her Majesty’s Government’s assessment that there was a sufficient distinction between the so called political and military wings of Hamas, such that they should be treated as different organisations, and that only the military wing was concerned in terrorism. The Government now assess that the approach of distinguishing between the various parts of Hamas is artificial. Hamas is a complex but single terrorist organisation. “7.3 The Government assess that Hamas commits and participates in terrorism. Two key examples put forward are: Hamas has used indiscriminate rocket or mortar attacks, and raids against Israeli targets. During the May 2021 conflict, over 4000 rockets were fired indiscriminately into Israel. Civilians, including two Israeli children, were killed as a result. Palestinian militant groups, including Hamas, frequently use incendiary balloons to launch attacks from Gaza into southern Israel. There was a spate of incendiary balloon attacks from Gaza during June and July 2021, causing fires in communities in southern Israel that resulted in serious damage to property. The Government assesses that Hamas prepares for acts of terrorism. One incident of preparatory activity is that Hamas recently launched summer camps in Gaza which focus on training groups, including minors, to fight. This is evidence of Hamas being responsible for running terrorist training camps in the region. In a press statement, Hamas described the aim of these camps as to ‘ignite the embers of Jihad in the liberation generation, cultivate Islamic values and prepare the expected victory army to liberate Palestine’. The Government also assesses that Hamas promotes and encourages terrorism.” That explanation illustrates the difference between pursuing an aim, such as Palestinian statehood, by political means, and pursuing the same aim by terrorism. When it was assessed that there were distinct wings of Hamas, and that it was only the military wing which resorted to terrorism, only the military wing was proscribed. When that assessment changed, so that Hamas was considered to be a complex but single terrorist organisation, the entire organisation was proscribed. Section 4 enables any organisation which has been proscribed, or any person affected by the organisation’s proscription, to apply to the Secretary of State for an order removing the organisation from the list of proscribed organisations. A number of organisations have been de-proscribed following such applications. In the event that the application is refused, section 5 provides a right of appeal to the Proscribed Organisations Appeal Commission (“the Commission”), which is directed by section 5(3) to allow the appeal if it considers that the decision to refuse the application to de-proscribe an organisation was flawed when considered in the light of the principles applicable on an application for judicial review. Detailed provision is made in respect of the constitution and administration of the Commission in Schedule 3. One of the members at each sitting must be a person who holds or has held high judicial office or is or has been a member of the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council: para 4(3). Organisations are entitled to be legally represented in proceedings before the Commission: para 5(3). The rules of procedure before the Commission have to be approved in draft by both Houses of Parliament: para 5(5). Section 6 provides that a party to an appeal before the Commission may bring a further appeal on a question of law to the Court of Appeal or the equivalent courts in Scotland and Northern Ireland. Section 6(3) recognises that a further right of appeal lies to this court. Proscription is not an end in itself, but is the basis on which a number of other provisions apply. Those provisions are designed to prevent proscribed organisations from gathering support or financial aid, to counter their influence on susceptible individuals, and ultimately to reduce the threat which they pose to our democracy and to public safety. In particular, the Act creates a number of offences which are designed to inhibit activities associated with proscribed organisations, including the offences created by sections 11 to 13. 30. Under section 11(1), a person commits an offence if he belongs or professes to belong to a proscribed organisation. Under section 12(1), a person commits an offence if: he invites support for a proscribed organisation, and the support is not, or is not restricted to, the provision of money or other property” (support of the latter kind being the subject of a separate offence, created by section 15). Under section 12(2), a person commits an offence if he arranges, manages or assists in arranging or managing a meeting which he knows is (a) to support a proscribed organisation, (b) to further the activities of a proscribed organisation, or (c) to be addressed by a person who belongs or professes to belong to a proscribed organisation. Under section 12(3), a person commits an offence if he addresses a meeting and the purpose of his address is to encourage support for a proscribed organisation or to further its activities. Under section 13, a person commits an offence if he wears an item of clothing or other article in a public place, or publishes an image of an item of clothing or other article, in such a way or in such circumstances as to arouse reasonable suspicion that he is a member or supporter of a proscribed organisation. These appeals are concerned with the offence created by section 12(1A), which is in the following terms: A person commits an offence if the person— expresses an opinion or belief that is supportive of a proscribed organisation, and in doing so is reckless as to whether a person to whom the expression is directed will be encouraged to support a proscribed organisation.” Under section 12(6), a person guilty of an offence under section 12 is liable, if convicted on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 14 years, or to a fine, or to both. On summary conviction, the person is liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months, to a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum, or to both. The relevant sentencing guidelines for England and Wales indicate that a very wide range of sentences may be appropriate, ranging from a high level community order to 13 years’ custody, depending on a number of specified matters, such as the degree of culpability of the offender, the degree of harm caused by the offence, and the presence of any aggravating or mitigating factors. By virtue of section 10, a person cannot be prosecuted under sections 11 to 13 (or other provisions of the Act) in respect of anything done in relation to an application under section 4 for an organisation to be removed from the list of proscribed organisations, or in relation an appeal to the Commission under section 5, or in relation to an appeal to the courts under section 6. Section 12(1A) did not form part of the Terrorism Act as originally enacted in 2000, but was inserted by section 1 of the Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019 (“the 2019 Act”). 35. The Bill which became the 2019 Act was introduced into Parliament, accompanied by a statement under section 19 of the Human Rights Act that its provisions were believed to be compatible with Convention rights, following a review of the Government’s counter-terrorism strategy in 2017. The background to that review was explained in the Explanatory Notes to the 2019 Act: “3. The UK national threat level, set by the independent Joint Terrorism Analysis Centre and the Security Service, has been set at SEVERE or higher since 29 August 2014. This means that a terrorist attack is ‘highly likely’. Since the murder of Fusilier Lee Rigby, in May 2013, 26 Islamist terrorist attacks in the UK have been foiled, and a further four extreme right-wing plots have been disrupted since March 2017. But in June 2016 there was the terrorism-related murder of Jo Cox MP and, between March and September 2017, London and Manchester experienced five terrorist attacks: Westminster (six deaths including the attacker): On the afternoon of Wednesday 22 March 2017, Khalid Masood drove a Hyundai Tucson SUV into pedestrians who were crossing Westminster Bridge. Three were killed at the time and 32 admitted to hospital, where one died later and several others were treated for life-changing injuries. Masood then took two carving knives out of the vehicle and fatally stabbed PC Keith Palmer who was on duty outside the Palace of Westminster. Masood was shot by armed police and died of his injuries. Manchester (23 deaths including the attacker): On the evening of Monday 22 May 2017, Salman Abedi detonated an explosive charge in the foyer of the Manchester Arena, at the end of a concert attended by thousands of children. Abedi was killed in the explosion along with 22 innocent people, 10 of whom were aged under 20. A further 116 people required hospital treatment. London Bridge (11 deaths including the three attackers): On the evening of Saturday 3 June 2017, three men (Briton Khuram Butt, Moroccan Rachid Redouane and Italian/Moroccan Youssef Zaghba) drove a Renault Master van into pedestrians on London Bridge, killing two people. Abandoning unused a store of Molotov cocktails and wearing dummy suicide vests, they then left the van armed with large knives, which were used on an apparently random basis to kill six more people in nearby Borough Market and in the vicinity of Borough High Street. Armed police arrived within eight minutes and shot and killed the attackers. A total of 11 people were killed, and 45 required hospital treatment. Finsbury Park (one death): Shortly after midnight on Monday 19 June 2017, Darren Osborne drove a Citroen Relay van into a crowd of worshippers outside the Finsbury Park Islamic Centre. Makram Ali, who had been taken ill and was lying on the ground, was struck by the vehicle and died soon afterwards. Ten other people received hospital treatment for injuries. Osborne was arrested and charged with murder and attempted murder; he was convicted on 1 February 2018 and sentenced to life imprisonment, with a minimum term of 43 years. Parsons Green (no deaths): On the morning of Friday 15 September 2017 an explosion occurred on a District line train at Parsons Green Underground Station, London. 23 people received burns injuries, some significant; and 28 people suffered crush injuries. Ahmed Hassan was arrested in Dover, Kent on 16 September and charged with attempted murder and causing an explosion likely to endanger life or property (contrary to section 2 of the Explosive Substances Act 1883). He was convicted of attempted murder on 16 March 2018 and sentenced to life imprisonment, with a minimum term of 34 years … Against the background of this heightened terrorist threat, the Government considered it necessary to update and strengthen the legal powers and capabilities available to law enforcement and intelligence agencies to disrupt terrorism and ensure that the sentences for terrorism offences properly reflect the seriousness of the crimes committed. On 4 June 2017, following the London Bridge attack, the Prime Minister announced that there would be a review of the Government’s counter-terrorism strategy ‘to make sure the police and security services have all the powers they need’. Subsequently, on 3 October 2017, the then Home Secretary announced that counter-terrorism laws would be updated to keep pace with modern online behaviour and to address issues of online radicalisation.” Following the review of the counter-terrorism strategy, in June 2018 the Government presented its revised strategy to Parliament in a document entitled “CONTEST: The United Kingdom’s Strategy for Countering Terrorism” (Cm 9608). This identified the drivers of the future terrorist threat as including ideology and radicalisation (para 70). 37. In addressing the danger of radicalisation, section 12 of the Terrorism Act, as it then stood, was not considered to be adequate. The ambit of the offence created by section 12(1) (set out at para 30 above) covers cases where a person “invites” another person to support a proscribed organisation. It was common ground before the Court of Appeal in R v Choudary [2016] EWCA Crim 1436; [2018] 1 WLR 695 that expressing support for a proscribed organisation was not conduct falling within section 12(1): see paras 5 and 35. Sharp LJ, giving the judgment of the court, also explained that the offence created by section 12(1) was to be distinguished not only from the expression of personal beliefs, but also from an invitation to someone else to share an opinion or belief: para 49. She approved a statement by the trial judge in that case (para 51): “I do not think it is as difficult as the defendants’ counsel suggest, to distinguish between holding a view, which may also be held by members of a proscribed organisation, and supporting the proscribed organisation. Once again, one can easily say that one agrees with certain views, but does not support the proscribed organisation.” As explained below, that remains the position in relation to section 12(1A). That provision does not make it an offence to express a personal opinion or belief, or to invite someone else to share that opinion or belief. Nor does it make it an offence to express support for a proscribed organisation. Proof that a person had done so would not be sufficient to support a conviction. The short description of the offence in the indictments against the appellants is therefore liable to mislead. The offence is not committed by “expressing support for a proscribed organisation”. An offence is committed only if a person expresses such support and “in doing so is reckless as to whether a person to whom the expression is directed will be encouraged to support a proscribed organisation”. It was also common ground in Choudary that the Crown had to prove that the defendant knew that he was inviting support for the organisation in question: see para 5. Accordingly, as Sharp LJ said at para 48, the Crown must make the jury sure that the defendant used words which in fact invited support for the proscribed organisation, and that the defendant knew at the time he did so that he was inviting support for that organisation. Summarising the position at para 70, she said: “it is important to emphasise that the section only prohibits inviting support for a proscribed organisation with the requisite intent. It does not prohibit the expression of views or opinions, no matter how offensive, but only the knowing invitation of support from others for the proscribed organisation.” So understood, section 12(1) did not go as far as was considered necessary to prevent radicalisation, particularly in the digital age. Since the offence required proof of an invitation to support the proscribed organisation, there was no prohibition of encouragement to support such an organisation unless it took the particular form of an invitation. Nor would it be enough if the person acted with recklessness as to the effect of his words on those who listened to them or read them online. 41. This was explained by the Government in the Explanatory Notes to the 2019 Act (para 25): “The scope of the section 12(1) offence was considered by the Court of Appeal in the case of R v [Choudary] and Rahman [2016] EWCA Crim 61. The Court of Appeal was clear that a central ingredient of the offence was inviting support from third parties for a proscribed organisation and that the offence ‘does not prohibit the holding of opinions or beliefs supportive of a proscribed organisation; or the expression of those opinions or beliefs’ (paragraph 35 of the judgment). This section therefore provides for a new offence which criminalises the expression of an opinion or belief that is supportive of a proscribed organisation (the actus reus or criminal act) in circumstances where the perpetrator is reckless as to whether a person to whom the expression is directed will be encouraged to support a proscribed organisation (the mens rea or mental element). The recklessness test is a subjective one, requiring that the perpetrator be aware of the risk.” Similarly, Circular 004/2019, “Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019”, published by the Home Office in 2019 to explain the effect of the 2019 Act, stated (at para 7) that section 12(1) of the Terrorism Act was considered, in the light of Choudary, “to leave a gap in a case where it is not possible to prove beyond reasonable doubt an intention to influence others to support a proscribed organisation, but where a person nonetheless makes inflammatory statements indicating their own support, and where there is a clear risk that this will have the harmful effect of influencing others to also support the organisation” (Original emphasis.) These matters, and the need to ensure that freedom of expression was not subject to a disproportionate interference, were examined closely during the Bill’s passage through Parliament. The cross-party Public Bill Committee of the House of Commons took evidence during 2018 from the Assistant Commissioner of the Metropolitan Police, the Director of Legal Services of the Crown Prosecution Service, the Chair of the Criminal Law Committee of the Law Society, the Director of the Law Society of Scotland, the Independent Reviewer of Terrorism Legislation, the Advocacy Director of Liberty (a campaigning organisation for civil liberties), and two members of the Criminal Bar Association. 43. The proposed section 12(1A) was discussed most fully by the Assistant Commissioner, who explained that he was the senior national coordinator for counter-terrorism. He said that there had been a change in the nature and scale of the terrorism threat in the United Kingdom, and significant technological developments, since the Terrorism Act was enacted. People did not attend public assemblies, marches and demonstrations in the same way that they used to. A far wider public could be reached by putting a message online. In relation to the proposed section 12(1A), he said that the biggest problem in counter-terrorism, without a doubt, was radicalisation. He gave some examples of the ability to radicalise by means of speech which could not be prosecuted under the law as it then stood: “One is of Mohammed Shamsuddin … On 27 June 2015, Shamsuddin gave a speech. In the context of that speech, it was very clear that he supported Daesh and what they were doing. He did not invite others, which is obviously the current test, so he did not meet a section 12 charge. He shouted anti-kufr rhetoric and said, ‘Allahu Akbar’ in relation to the Kuwait mosque bombing. He said that one should not feel sorry for the British who died in Tunisia or for the kufr killed in Kuwait. He criticised Gay Pride and said that gay people should be thrown from tall buildings. Having spoken on recent shootings in Tunisia, he said, ‘The spark was lit’, and that the listeners knew the rest. “A second example is Omar Brooks, again in 2015, on 4 July. He gave provocative talks and spoke of jihad and of how Islam was spread by the sword and was not a soft religion about peace. Brooks also mocked a sheikh who had spoken against the killing of Lee Rigby. Again, it was clear, when you look at the full tone of his speech, that he supported the concept and principle of Daesh, but he did not invite others, under the terms of the current legislation, and again it would not have met a section 12 charge. “Now, were either of those two people reckless in that they would have thought that their deeds would have encouraged terrorism? My contention is that they absolutely would. What we have seen in the rise of terrorism—particularly with the malleable, vulnerable people not well equipped to understand the nuances of religion or ideology—is that this kind of radicalisation speech has really worked to increase the threat to the UK.” The Assistant Commissioner went on to say that he could not stress strongly enough the effect that charismatic, radicalising speakers, who professed to support proscribed organisations and encourage violence, were having on a section of our society. He gave the example of the defendant in Choudary, whom he described as a leader of the proscribed organisation al-Muhajiroun. He had been able to speak very persuasively and charismatically over many years. He avoided prosecution by keeping just on the right side of the Terrorism Act as it then stood, inspiring support but not inviting it. Hundreds of disruptions had been caused by people influenced by that organisation’s rhetoric or material. The proposed section 12(1A) was designed to deal with people who used their profile and presence to inspire people recklessly into joining a proscribed organisation or following its beliefs. 45. The Bill was also considered by the House of Commons and House of Lords Joint Committee on Human Rights. It took evidence from a range of sources, including Liberty and the Independent Reviewer of Terrorism Legislation. In its Ninth Report of Session 2017–19, “Legislative Scrutiny: Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Bill”, HC 1208, HL Paper 167 (2018), it observed (para 18): “There is a careful balance to be struck here to ensure that valid freedom of expression is not unintentionally caught by new offences. In that regard it is important to recall that even speech that offends, shocks or disturbs, is still protected.” The Committee expressed concern that it was not clear what types of speech would constitute an “expression of support”. It considered it arguable that the phrase could, for example, include an academic debate during which participants spoke in favour of the de-proscription of proscribed organisations (para 12). The Committee also expressed concern that the test of recklessness meant that there was no requirement that the person should deliberately or knowingly encourage others to support a proscribed organisation (para 16). In the Government’s response (HC 1578, 2018), the Minister for Security and Economic Crime observed that the Government had a duty not only to protect the rights of those who are investigated and prosecuted, but also to preserve the fundamental right to life of those who may be targeted by terrorist activity. In relation to the Committee’s concern over the lack of a requirement of deliberate encouragement, the Minister explained that the test of recklessness imposed a requirement that the person must know that their expression of support for a proscribed organisation may generate such support in others. In relation to the Committee’s concern about debates over de-proscription, the Minister said that the Government recognised that people would wish to, and should be able to, have lawful debates on the merits of the proscription and de-proscription of individual organisations. Section 10, discussed at para 33 above, provided clear and unambiguous immunity from prosecution under proscription offences for anything done in relation to an application for de-proscription, including any statements made in support of the organisation. 48. In relation to the Committee’s concern about the clarity of the proposed offence, the Minister said: “The recklessness test in clause 1 [of the Bill, inserting section 12(1A) into the Terrorism Act] is well-established, and well-understood by the courts. In this context it would require the prosecution to prove that a person subjectively knew that expressing an opinion or belief in support of a proscribed terrorist organisation in the particular circumstances would cause someone else to support the organisation, and that they nonetheless expressed it where a reasonable person would not do so. On this basis a hypothetical example of a lawful statement might be one to the effect that a proscribed organisation is not, as a matter of fact, concerned in terrorism, and therefore does not meet the legal test for proscription; whereas an example of an unlawful statement, which risks encouraging others to support the same organisation, might be one praising its terrorist activities and suggesting that it should not be proscribed so that individuals in the UK could be free to better emulate such terrorist conduct. Of course, in practice, all the circumstances in which a statement is made will be relevant to its lawfulness. “It would be impractical to define on the face of the legislation, in more specific and granular terms, particular forms of statement that will or will not be captured. Similarly, it would be extremely difficult to define a valid debate and to distinguish this from a debate that is not valid. Such determinations will always be highly dependent on the facts and circumstances of particular cases, and can only be properly made by a court considering all of those matters in each case. To attempt to do so in legislation would be likely to unhelpfully muddy the position, and would provide no greater legal certainty to individuals.” (Emphasis added.) Under section 36 of the Terrorism Act 2006, the operation of the Terrorism Act, including the offences created by that Act, must be reviewed each year by the Independent Reviewer of Terrorism Legislation, whose report must be laid before Parliament. 50. The Independent Reviewer considered section 12(1A) in detail in his Report on Terrorism Legislation and Protests, published in 2023. He noted at paras 43–44 that the offence was only committed if the defendant had the required state of mind: “He must be reckless as to whether a person to whom the expression is directed ‘will’ be encouraged to support a proscribed organisation (meaning that he knows of the risk, and nonetheless goes on to take it). Since the word is ‘will’ he must be aware of sufficient likelihood that encouragement will occur. “This inevitably means that the opinion or belief, even if not expressly supportive of the organisation (for example, praise for terrorist acts on 7 October 2023), must be known by the speaker and his audience to have sufficient connection to a proscribed group.” 51. “As a matter of proof, it must be shown that the expressed opinion or belief is supportive of the proscribed organisation itself. It is an offence concerned with organisations not merely with actions carried out by them. So, for example, a demonstration expressing support for IRA weapons-decommissioning would not necessarily be an offence. “Similarly, the risk must be that a person at whom the expression is directed supports the organisation. Whether a particular sign or slogan might have that effect will depend on the circumstances. Direct reference to Hamas, or praise for events with which Hamas were obviously involved, might demonstrate a sufficient likelihood of encouraging support for Hamas as an organisation.” The Independent Reviewer concluded by recommending that the provision should not be amended. The Home Office also conducted an assessment of the 2019 Act, which it published in 2025: “Post-legislative scrutiny of the Counter-Terrorism and Border Security Act 2019”. It reported that the offence had been found to be operationally useful. The Crown Prosecution Service provided an example of the successful prosecution of an individual under section 12(1A) for using social media to express support for Daesh, even though the conduct stopped short of deliberately inviting others to support Daesh. In other recent reports, the Independent Reviewer has drawn attention to the fact that the threat of terrorism in the United Kingdom now comes principally from persons who act alone, using bladed weapons or motor vehicles, and have been radicalised via the internet: see, for example, his most recent report to Parliament, “The Terrorism Acts in 2023: report of the Independent Reviewer of Terrorism Legislation” (2025), para 3.1. In other words, attacks are more likely to be encouraged or “inspired” rather than planned or directed by terrorist groups. The reports also make clear the continuing nature of the threat posed by terrorism in the UK and elsewhere. A recent example in the UK is the attack on the Heaton Park synagogue in Manchester on 2 October 2025, during the Jewish holiday of Yom Kippur, in which three people were killed (including the attacker) and another three were injured. There was and remains a heightened tension in the United Kingdom and elsewhere following the 7 October 2023 attacks on Israel by Hamas, in which over 1200 people were killed and 251 people were taken hostage, and the response of the Israeli authorities in Gaza, which has resulted in very large numbers of people being killed or injured, and in a humanitarian crisis. Following the terrorist attack on Jewish families celebrating Hanukkah at Bondi Beach on 14 December 2025, in which 15 people were killed, the Independent Reviewer published a lecture, “The Lessons of Bondi Beach: Terrorism, Hatred and the Law” (2026), in which he described the rise of anti-semitism and hate speech in the United Kingdom since 7 October 2023, and gave numerous examples, such as attacks on Marks and Spencer stores, including the stabbing of customers, because of supposed links to Israel. The appeals raise questions, first, as to the matters which have to be proved before there can be a conviction under section 12(1A): that is to say, the ingredients of the offence; and secondly, whether, and if so under what conditions, a conviction of the offence is compatible with article 10. It will be necessary to consider each of those questions in turn. In terms of section 12(1A), a person commits an offence “if the person— (a) expresses an opinion or belief that is supportive of a proscribed organisation, and (b) in doing so is reckless as to whether a person to whom the expression is directed will be encouraged to support a proscribed organisation”. The requirements of subsection (a) can be broken down into four elements: first, that a person expresses an opinion or belief; secondly, that the opinion or belief is supportive of an organisation; thirdly, that the person expresses the supportive opinion or belief knowingly; and fourthly, that the organisation in question is proscribed. Subsection (b) adds a further requirement of recklessness as to the risk that a person to whom the expression is directed will be encouraged to support the organisation in question. Each of these requirements will be considered in turn. The first point to note is that the offence is not constituted by a person’s holding an opinion or belief, no matter how odious or offensive it may be considered. The opinion or belief must be expressed. 60. The second point to note is that the opinion or belief must be supportive of an organisation. Expressing an opinion or belief which coincides with the aims or beliefs of the organisation is not sufficient. For example, a person can express support for a united Ireland without expressing support for the IRA. A person can express support for Palestinian statehood without expressing support for Hamas. As the Lady Chief Justice said in an important passage in her judgment (para 53): “The expression must be of an opinion or belief that is supportive of the ‘organisation’. To express an opinion or belief that is shared by the organisation is not the same thing as to express an opinion or belief that is supportive of the organisation. The organisation does not merely exist to promote a (terrorist) belief. It exists to promote that belief by the means identified in the definition of terrorism in section 1 of the [Terrorism Act]. The offence requires the expression of an opinion or belief that is supportive of Hamas, and not merely that it may be supportive of the achievement of aims which Hamas shares. That is an important distinction which will require the court deciding the case to pay careful attention to what was said and done, the circumstances in which that happened, and the meaning which the speaker intended to convey.” There is, accordingly, a distinction between an opinion or belief which is supportive of the objectives of an organisation (such as a united Ireland, or an independent Palestine), and an opinion or belief which is supportive of the organisation itself. This may in some circumstances appear to be a subtle distinction, but it is important that the jury’s attention is correctly focused on the requirements of the statutory offence. The whole focus of Part II of the Terrorism Act is specifically on proscribed organisations, and the purpose of the offences created by sections 11–13 is to take effective steps against proscribed organisations, as explained at para 29 above. As to what is meant by “supportive”, it was explained in paras 40 and 41 above that section 12(1A) was enacted in the light of the judgment of the Court of Appeal in the case of Choudary, so as to address limitations in the offence established by section 12(1) which that judgment had highlighted and which were thought to compromise the effectiveness of the legislation in combating radicalisation. The judgment in Choudary also addressed the meaning of “support” in the context of section 12(1), under which a person commits an offence if he invites “support for a proscribed organisation”. Since the expression used in section 12(1A), “supportive of a proscribed organisation”, differs only in using the adjective “supportive” instead of the noun “support”, it is helpful to begin by considering the interpretation of the latter word by the Court of Appeal. As Sharp LJ observed in Choudary at para 41, “support” is, on the face of it, an ordinary English word with a clear meaning which would be easily understood by a jury. She went on at para 46 to endorse the view of the trial judge that: “In its ordinary meaning, ‘support’ can encompass both practical or tangible assistance, and what has been referred to in submissions as intellectual support: that is to say, agreement with and approval, approbation or endorsement of, that which is supported.” In the context of section 12(1A), an opinion or belief could provide a proscribed organisation with intellectual support if it expressed approval or endorsement of that organisation. As the trial judge explained in Choudary (ibid): “An organisation which has the support of many will be stronger and more determined than an organisation which has the support of few, even if not every supporter expresses his support in a tangible or practical way. The more persons support an organisation, the more it will have what is referred to as the oxygen of publicity. The organisation as a body, and the individual members or adherents of it, will derive encouragement from the fact that they have the support of others, even if it may not in every instance be active or tangible support.” An opinion or belief which is supportive of an organisation will often refer expressly to the organisation in question. However, it would be a mistake to require, as a matter of law, that there must be an express reference in every case, as it is possible that a sufficiently clear reference may be made by implication. Legislation of this kind should not be interpreted or applied in an unduly technical manner. As Lord Bingham of Cornhill emphasised in another case concerned with the interpretation of the Terrorism Act, the court’s task, within the permissible bounds of interpretation, is to give effect to Parliament’s purpose: R v Z (Attorney General for Northern Ireland’s Reference) [2005] UKHL 35; [2005] 2 AC 645, para 17. Whether a person has expressed an opinion or belief which is supportive of an organisation is judged objectively. It depends on how the words would naturally and reasonably have been understood in the circumstances in which they were spoken or written. That is a question of fact. For example, a responsible discussion of the conflict in Gaza, which sought to place the events of 7 October 2023 in the context of the history of Israel’s treatment of the Palestinians, would not constitute the expression of an opinion which was supportive of Hamas, even if it tended to make their actions more understandable. The person knows that the opinion or belief is supportive of the organisation It is a requirement of every statutory offence that the conduct in question is committed knowingly (that is to say, intentionally), unless the legislation shows a clear intention to create an absolute offence: Sweet v Parsley [1970] AC 132, 148. That principle was applied to the offence created by section 12(1) in Choudary, where Sharp LJ observed at para 48 that someone can only be convicted of an offence under that provision if the jury are sure that the defendant used words which in fact invited support for a proscribed organisation, and that the defendant knew at the time he did so that he was inviting support for that organisation. That reasoning was approved by this court in Pwr v Director of Public Prosecutions [2022] UKSC 2; [2022] 1 WLR 789 (“Pwr”). At para 43, Lord Hamblen, Lord Burrows and Lady Arden, with whom the other members of the court agreed, said that it was clear from the words of section 11(1) and section 12(1)-(3) that the offences in those sections were not offences of strict liability: “For example, one cannot belong or profess to belong to a proscribed organisation (under section 11(1)) unless one intends to belong or to profess to belong to the organisation. ‘Belonging’ or ‘professing to belong’ cannot be inadvertent. Similarly, one cannot ‘invite support’ (under section 12(1)) unless one knows that one is inviting support: see Choudary [2018] 1 WLR 695, para 48.” That reasoning applies equally to section 12(1A), as was accepted by all parties to these appeals. An offence under that provision is committed only if a person expresses an opinion or belief which is objectively supportive of an organisation and he or she knows that it is supportive of that organisation. In other words, the defendant must intend to express an opinion or belief which is supportive of the organisation. So, for example, if the first appellant did not know that her words would naturally and reasonably be understood as referring to Hamas, she would not be guilty of an offence even if her words were so understood. The opinion or belief must have been expressed at a time when the organisation was proscribed. The procedure for proscribing an organisation has been described. Proof that the organisation in question was proscribed at the relevant time should not present any difficulty. In the circumstances of the present appeals, for example, there is no doubt that Hamas was a proscribed organisation at the time of the events with which the charges against the appellants are concerned. It was common ground in Choudary that there was no requirement of knowledge that the organisation was proscribed. In Pwr, where the issue was argued, this court rejected the contention that it was necessary for the defendant to know that the organisation had been proscribed, saying at para 39: “There are at least two problems with that submission. First, it appears to run counter to the principle that ignorance of the law is no excuse. If [counsel] were correct, it would be a defence that a defendant did not know that, as a matter of law, the PKK was a proscribed organisation. Secondly, it would render the provision a virtual dead letter because it would be very difficult for the prosecution to prove a defendant’s knowledge of such matters.” Proscription is a matter of law. Whether an organisation is proscribed depends on whether it is included in the list set out in Schedule 2 to the Terrorism Act (or operates under the same name as an organisation listed in that Schedule): see section 3(1) of that Act. Proscription is effected by the amendment of Schedule 2 by a statutory instrument made under delegated powers, as explained at para 21 above. It is a general principle of our criminal law that ignorance of the law is no defence. 74. There are compelling reasons why that principle applies in the present context. First, as was pointed out in Pwr, to require the prosecution to prove that the defendant knew that the organisation had been proscribed would render section 12(1A) virtually unworkable, since it would impose a burden of proof on the prosecution which it would generally be very difficult to discharge. Legislation is not to be interpreted in a way which would deprive it of utility, where another interpretation is reasonably available. Secondly, the conclusion that there is no requirement of knowledge that the organisation was proscribed does not impose a disproportionate burden on persons wishing to exercise their freedom of expression. It is easy for anyone to find out whether an organisation is proscribed. A list of proscribed organisations is published by the Government online, and is the first website listed if an internet search is carried out for “proscribed organisations” using popular search engines. Furthermore, the proscription of an organisation attracts comment and publicity in the media and social media. No offence is committed by a person who expresses an opinion or belief that is supportive of a proscribed organisation unless the person “in doing so is reckless as to whether a person to whom the expression is directed will be encouraged to support a proscribed organisation”: section 12(1A)(b). The necessary recklessness is therefore in respect of a result: that a person to whom the expression is directed will be encouraged to support a proscribed organisation. The word “directed” imports intention. An expression of opinion or belief cannot be said to have been directed to a person if it reached that person accidentally or inadvertently. The defendant must have intended that his or her words should be read or heard by that person. That is not to say that the defendant must necessarily have known of that specific individual. If, for example, the defendant addressed a crowd, the speech will have been directed to every person in the crowd; if the speech was posted on a social media site accessible by the general public, it will have been directed to anyone who read it there. On the other hand, the first appellant cannot be taken to have directed her remarks to persons who viewed the recording which was posted online by the Daily Mail. Recklessness is a well-established concept in English criminal law. It is common ground on this appeal that “reckless”, in the context of section 12(1A), should be understood in the sense which it generally bears in criminal offences, as explained in R v G [2003] UKHL 50; [2004] 1 AC 1034, para 41. So understood, recklessness in respect of a result has two elements. The first is that the defendant was aware of a risk that the result would occur. The second is that it was, in the circumstances known to the defendant, objectively unreasonable to take the risk. It follows from the first of these elements that a person can only be guilty of an offence under section 12(1A) if he or she knows of the risk that a person to whom the expression is directed will be encouraged to support a proscribed organisation. In other words, there must in fact be such a risk, and the defendant must be aware of it. 79. Whether there is a risk that a person to whom the expression is directed will be encouraged to support the organisation will depend on the circumstances, including the characteristics of the persons to whom the expression is directed. Determining whether the defendant is aware of the risk that a person to whom the expression is directed will be encouraged to support the organisation depends on an assessment of the defendant’s state of mind. To take an example mentioned by the Joint Committee on Human Rights, if an opinion in favour of the de-proscription of an organisation were to be expressed in the context of an academic debate, for example by a university professor taking part in a seminar, then even in the somewhat unlikely event that the professor’s words were objectively and knowingly supportive of that organisation, it is difficult to imagine that there would be a more than minimal risk that the other persons participating in the seminar would be encouraged to support the organisation; and, unless the professor was proved to have been aware of such a risk, no question of recklessness could arise. It is also important to bear in mind that, as explained earlier, merely expressing a personal belief which coincided with the aims of a proscribed organisation, for example in an independent Palestine, would not fall within the scope of section 12(1A) even if others were encouraged to share that belief. The second element of recklessness is that it must, in the circumstances known to the defendant, have been unreasonable for him or her, knowing of the risk, to take that risk. Not all risk-taking is reckless. In some circumstances, the perceived risk may be very low; or the consequences, if the risk eventuates, may not be serious (although that can hardly be the position where the risk is that a person will be encouraged to support a terrorist organisation). The reasonableness of the decision to take the risk has therefore to be assessed objectively in the light of the relevant circumstances, including the degree of risk of which the defendant was aware. The ingredients of the offence therefore require proof of two states of mind: first, that the defendant knew that his or her expressed opinion or belief was supportive of the relevant organisation, and secondly, that the defendant was reckless as to whether the person to whom its expression was directed would be encouraged to support that organisation. Both states of mind are culpable. 82. In summary, therefore, the ingredients of the offence are as follows: The defendant must have expressed an opinion or belief. The opinion or belief must be objectively supportive of an organisation. That is a question of fact, depending on how the words spoken or written by the defendant would naturally and reasonably have been understood in the circumstances in which they were spoken or written. The defendant must have known that he or she was expressing an opinion or belief which was supportive of the organisation. The opinion or belief must have been expressed at a time when the organisation was proscribed. There must have been a risk that a person to whom the defendant’s expression of opinion or belief was directed would be encouraged to support that organisation. The defendant must have known of that risk. It must have been objectively unreasonable for the defendant to take that risk, in the circumstances known to him or her. In a trial on indictment, the jury must be sure of each of these elements before they are entitled to convict the defendant. If it would be impossible for a reasonable jury to be sure of each of those elements on the evidence before them, then it will be the duty of the judge to uphold a submission of no case to answer. The same applies, mutatis mutandis, in summary proceedings. The appellants’ trials have not yet taken place, and the relevant facts have not yet been established. The court is not being asked to decide whether, on the facts of their respective cases, the conviction of the appellants would violate their Convention rights. The issues raised under the Convention are of a more abstract and general character. 85. In the case of the first appellant, the issue raised is whether article 10 requires that an assessment of proportionality must be conducted by the jury when they consider their verdict. This can be broken down into two propositions: that in order for a conviction of an offence under section 12(1A) to be compatible with article 10, it is essential not only that all the elements of the offence must be proved, but in addition that a separate assessment must be carried out of whether the conviction would be a proportionate interference with the defendant’s right to freedom of expression; and that that assessment, in a trial on indictment conducted in accordance with English criminal procedure, must be carried out by the jury. The first of those propositions raises a question concerning Convention rights. The second raises a question of English criminal procedure. In the case of the second appellant, the court is asked to make a declaration that section 12(1A) is incompatible with Convention rights, on the basis that: the offence is too vague and uncertain for the interference with freedom of expression resulting from section 12(1A) to be “prescribed by law”, within the meaning of article 10; and the offence does not adequately balance the need to combat terrorism against the rights of individuals to engage in debate on matters of public importance, with the consequence that the interference with freedom of expression resulting from section 12(1A) is not “necessary in a democratic society”, within the meaning of article 10. 87. As was explained in In re Abortion Services (Safe Access Zones) (Northern Ireland) Bill [2022] UKSC 32; [2023] AC 505 (“Safe Access Zones”), para 54, where a defendant relies on article 9, 10 or 11 Convention rights as a defence to a protest-related offence with which he or she is charged, the first question which arises is whether those articles are engaged. That may be a live question in some cases concerned with support for terrorism. For example, in Hizb Ut-Tahrir v Germany (Application no 31098/08) (2012) 55 EHRR SE12 the European Court of Human Rights (“the European court”) held that article 17 applied, and articles 10 and 11 therefore could not be relied on, where the applicant called for the violent destruction of the state of Israel and the killing of its inhabitants. It stated at para 74 that the applicant was attempting to deflect article 11 from its real purpose “by employing this right for ends which are clearly contrary to the values of the Convention, notably the commitment to the peaceful settlement of international conflicts and to the sanctity of human life”. The same applied in relation to article 10: para 78. A similar conclusion was reached in relation to article 10 rights in Roj TV A/S v Denmark (2018) 67 EHRR SE8. In the present cases, however, there is no dispute that the statements made by the appellants, which form the basis of the charges brought against them, fall within the scope of article 10. Accordingly, it is necessary to consider in the first place the question whether the interference with their article 10 rights is “prescribed by law”. I will then consider the requirement that the interference must pursue a legitimate aim. Although there is no dispute that that requirement is satisfied, it is necessary to understand the nature of the legitimate aim in order to determine the proportionality of the means which have been selected to achieve it. 89. I will then consider the compatibility of section 12(1A) with the requirement that an interference with freedom of expression must be “necessary in a democratic society”, and in the course of doing so will address both the second appellant’s general challenge to the proportionality of the offence, and the first appellant’s submission that the proportionality of a conviction must be separately considered over and above the question whether the elements of the offence have been proved. The critical question is that identified in Safe Access Zones at para 55, namely whether the ingredients of the offence themselves strike a fair balance between the Convention rights of the defendant and the public interest in the achievement of the legitimate aim pursued, so that, if all the elements of the offence are proved, the conviction of the defendant will not result in a disproportionate interference with those rights (subject, of course, to the proportionality of any penalty imposed following conviction). That was the conclusion reached in relation to the offences created by sections 12(1) and 13(1) of the Terrorism Act in Choudary and Pwr respectively, and also the view to which the House of Lords inclined, obiter, in relation to section 11(1) in Sheldrake v Director of Public Prosecutions, Attorney General’s Reference (No 4 of 2002) [2004] UKHL 43; [2005] 1 AC 264. The question is whether the same is true of section 12(1A). Article 10 states in paragraph (1) that everyone has the right to freedom of expression, and that this right shall include freedom to hold opinions and to receive and impart information and ideas without interference by public authority. Paragraph (2) states, so far as material: “The exercise of these freedoms, since it carries with it duties and responsibilities, may be subject to such formalities, conditions, restrictions or penalties as are prescribed by law and are necessary in a democratic society, in the interests of national security, territorial integrity or public safety, for the prevention of disorder or crime, for the protection of … the … rights of others ...” The expression “prescribed by law” requires, first, that the impugned measure should have a basis in domestic law. It also refers to the quality of the law in question, requiring that it be accessible to the persons concerned and foreseeable as to its effects. A law is “foreseeable” if it is formulated with sufficient precision to enable the individual, if need be with appropriate advice, to regulate his or her conduct. For domestic law to meet these requirements, it must afford a measure of legal protection against arbitrary interferences by public authorities with the rights guaranteed by the Convention. This is also a general principle of the common law: see, for example, R v Misra and Srivastava [2004] EWCA Crim 2375; [2005] 1 Cr App R 21, paras 32–34. The terms of section 12(1A) have been set out at para 31 above. Any sentence which follows on conviction also has to be within the limits set by the legislation. The judge is in addition given more specific guidance by the sentencing guidelines discussed at para 32 above. However, it is argued on behalf of the second appellant that the relevant domestic law is too vague and uncertain to possess the quality of “law” for the purposes of the requirement under article 10(2) that an interference with freedom of expression must be “prescribed by law”. This submission raises an important point. When framing restrictions on freedom of expression, precision matters. Especially in relation to political matters or questions of public interest, members of the public should not be discouraged from exercising their freedom of expression by laws which are vague or which they cannot be expected to understand. 94. However, the jurisprudence of the European court recognises that “in any system of law, including criminal law, however clearly drafted a legal provision may be, there will inevitably be a need for interpretation by the courts, whose judicial function is precisely to elucidate obscure points and dispel any doubts which may remain regarding the interpretation of legislation”: Terentyev v Russia (Application no 10692/09) judgment of 28 August 2018, unreported, para 56. Reference might also be made to the judgment in Alekhina v Russia (Application no 38004/12) (2018) 68 EHRR 14, para 254: “… the consequences which a given action may entail … need not be foreseeable with absolute certainty. Whilst certainty is desirable, it may bring in its train excessive rigidity, and the law must be able to keep pace with changing circumstances. Accordingly, many laws are inevitably couched in terms which, to a greater or lesser extent, are vague, and whose interpretation and application are questions of practice.” The same point has also been made by this court: see, for example, R v Golds [2016] UKSC 61; [2016] 1 WLR 5231, para 37. In the context of counter-terrorism legislation, in particular, the European court said in Internationale Humanitäre Hilfsorganisation eV v Germany (Application no 11214/19) judgment of 10 October 2023, unreported, para 67: “It is, however, not possible to attain absolute rigidity in the framing of laws, and many of them are inevitably couched in terms which, to a greater or lesser extent, are vague. The level of precision required of domestic legislation depends to a considerable degree on the content of the instrument in question and the field it is designed to cover”. Although the language used to define a legal rule can never achieve absolute precision, the terms of section 12(1A) are clear enough to enable individuals, if necessary after taking legal advice, to regulate their conduct. There is nothing obscure about the meaning of the words “expresses an opinion or belief that is supportive of a proscribed organisation”, or about the meaning of the words “reckless as to whether a person to whom the expression is directed will be encouraged to support a proscribed organisation”. As explained at paras 73 and 74 above, whether an organisation is proscribed can be easily ascertained. The elements of the offence have been analysed in detail and are summarised at para 82 above. They are sufficiently clear to meet the standard of being “prescribed by law”. They will be explained to a jury in the legal directions given to them by the trial judge. If the jury require any additional guidance in the circumstances of a particular case, it is the function of the trial judge to provide it. 97. Comparison might be made with other legislative provisions in the field of restrictions on freedom of expression in relation to terrorism, which have been regarded by the European court as meeting the standard of being “prescribed by law”. Examples include “written and spoken propaganda … aimed at undermining … the indivisible unity of the nation” (Erdoğdu and İnce v Turkey (Application nos 25067/94 and 25068/94) judgment of 8 July 1999, unreported); “whoever supports or promotes an organisation [the purpose or activities of which are directed to commit specified offences]” (Hogefeld v Germany (Application no 35402/97) (2000) 29 EHRR CD173); or apologie du terrorisme (Leroy v France (Application no 36109/03) judgment of 2 October 2008, unreported), a phrase which the European court translates literally as “apology of [or for] terrorism” (see, for example, Taşdemir v Turkey (Application no 38841/07) decision of 23 February 2010, unreported; Gül v Turkey (2010) 52 EHRR 38, para 43; Kiliç and Eren v Turkey (Application no 43807/07) judgment of 29 November 2011, unreported, para 28; and Belge v Turkey (Application no 50171/09) judgment of 6 December 2016, unreported, para 35). The phrase might more idiomatically be translated as defending or justifying terrorism. Section 12(1A) does not present greater difficulties of definition than any of the foregoing provisions. 98. As explained earlier, the Terrorism Act is designed to protect the citizens of the United Kingdom against terrorism, and to enable a democratic society to operate without fear. It also contains measures designed to prevent the United Kingdom from being used for the purpose of terrorism outside the jurisdiction. In particular, its provisions are designed to prevent proscribed organisations from gathering support or financial aid, to counter their influence on susceptible individuals, and ultimately to reduce the threat which they pose to our democracy and to public safety. More specifically, section 12(1A) is intended to address the danger of radicalisation—the use of speech or writing to encourage others to join or support terrorist organisations and to follow their beliefs—which is considered by experts in the field to be the most serious problem facing counter-terrorism at the present time (para 43 above). Section 12(1A) seeks to achieve that aim by criminalising the expression of an opinion or belief that is supportive of a terrorist organisation in circumstances where the perpetrator is reckless as to whether a person to whom the expression is directed will be encouraged to support that organisation. It follows that section 12(1A) pursues a number of the legitimate aims mentioned in article 10(2): the protection of national security and public safety, the prevention of disorder or crime, and the protection of the rights of others. These have been recognised by the European court in many of its judgments as legitimate aims of counter-terrorism legislation. Some examples are given below. An aspect of the Terrorism Act in general, and section 12(1A) in particular, is that it is not confined to terrorism within the United Kingdom, but also seeks to prevent terrorism in other countries, as explained at para 20 above. That has also been recognised by the European court as a legitimate aim. 101. For example, the case of Internationale Humanitäre Hilfsorganisation eV v Germany concerned a complaint under article 11 in respect of the proscription of an organisation which provided financial aid to Hamas. In relation to the question of a legitimate aim, which is required under article 11 in the same way as under article 10, the European court noted that the case differed from previous cases in so far as it concerned the fight against international terrorism in general, independently of a tangible threat to Germany in particular. It observed that “the fight against international terrorism may nonetheless serve the cause of preventing disorder, and states must be able to take measures so that their territory is not used to facilitate terrorism and the bringing of violence into conflicts abroad” (para 75). It added (para 76) that article 11(2) was: “… formulated broadly without limiting states to take measures only for the protection of the rights and freedoms of individuals within their jurisdiction. The protection of the concept of international understanding as interpreted and applied in the present case therefore constitutes the legitimate aim … of protecting the rights and freedoms of others, which includes the right to life of individuals living abroad”. See also Hizb Ut-Tahrir v Germany, paras 71 and 73–74. Accordingly, in so far as it may have been implicit in the appellants’ submissions that greater protection should be afforded to speech which is supportive of a terrorist organisation which is not active in the United Kingdom, but focuses its terrorist activities on other countries, that suggestion must be rejected. 103. When considering the proportionality of the interference with freedom of expression resulting from section 12(1A), it is necessary to recognise at the outset that a content-based restriction on freedom of expression, particularly in the context of political speech, requires a compelling justification. However, as explained earlier, it is not in dispute that proceedings based on section 12(1A) pursue legitimate aims, namely the maintenance of national security and public safety, the prevention of disorder or crime, and the protection of the rights of others. It is also clearly established that there is a real risk of terrorist attacks in the United Kingdom and elsewhere carried out by individuals who have been encouraged by the words of others. That is demonstrated by the evidence summarised in paras 35–36, 40–44 and 53–55 above. The gravity of the threat is also demonstrated by the examples given at paras 35 and 43–44 above, and by more recent examples such as the attack on the Heaton Park synagogue, mentioned in para 54 above, the 7 October 2023 attacks by Hamas, mentioned in para 55 above, and the Bondi Beach attack, also mentioned in para 55 above. Against that background, there is clearly a strong public interest in preventing the spread of terrorist ideology through propaganda or public encouragement. In particular, expressions of approval or endorsement of proscribed organisations are especially significant in the light of the growing tendency, mentioned earlier, for terrorist acts to be perpetrated by individuals who have been encouraged or inspired by material they have read or heard. In that context, the expression of opinions or beliefs which are supportive of proscribed organisations can have highly dangerous consequences. It is correspondingly important to address the risk of such encouragement. In the language of the Convention, there is a pressing social need. 105. The competing interests in freedom of expression and the prevention of terrorism were recognised and given careful consideration during the process which led to the enactment of section 12(1A): a matter which is relevant when considering the operation of the margin of appreciation, as the Grand Chamber explained in Animal Defenders International v United Kingdom (Application no 48876/08) (2013) 57 EHRR 21, para 108. Freedom of expression has been protected for centuries in the law of the United Kingdom, and it continues to be a highly valued aspect of our society, particularly in relation to political speech and debates on questions of public interest. Its importance was reflected in the consideration of section 12(1A) during its passage through Parliament, when evidence was taken from civil liberties organisations as well as from the police and other authorities, and concerns were expressed, and responded to, as to the impact of the measure on freedom of speech: see paras 42 and 45–48 above. 106. At the same time, the Government and Parliament recognised their responsibility to address the threat of terrorism both domestically and internationally, and to respond to the particular threat which has emerged, as explained at paras 36–37, 43–44 and 53 above, from the use of freedom of expression in order to encourage support for terrorist organisations. Deciding where and how to balance the value of freedom of expression against the need to combat terrorism is a highly sensitive matter falling primarily within the responsibility of the elected national authorities. Judicial supervision, whether by domestic courts applying the Human Rights Act or by the European court applying the Convention, has to respect the institutional expertise and constitutional legitimacy underlying the judgment made by those authorities by according them a correspondingly wide margin of appreciation. Although a strict approach is generally taken to restrictions on political speech, the European court has recognised that states must enjoy a wider margin of appreciation when countering terrorism: see, for example, Schwabe v Germany (2011) 59 EHRR 28, para 113, and Internationale Humanitäre Hilfsorganisation eV v Germany, para 89 (“the aims pursued by the prohibition of indirect support for terrorism as being contrary to the concept of international understanding are necessarily very weighty and states enjoy a wider margin of appreciation in that regard”). The next important point to note is the fact that section 12(1A) is only concerned with expressions of support for an organisation that has already been proscribed in accordance with the procedure laid down in the legislation, following a determination that it is concerned with terrorism. In that regard, the submission on behalf of the first appellant, that it is disproportionate that section 12(1A) applies to the entirety of Hamas, when that organisation engages in a range of activities, only some of which involve terrorism, must be rejected. 108. In the first place, relevant and sufficient reasons were provided by the Government, and accepted by Parliament, for the decision to proscribe the entirety of Hamas, as explained at paras 22–24 above. Secondly, measures taken to counter international terrorism, such as the decision to proscribe Hamas, fall within a category of decisions in respect of which the contracting states enjoy a wide margin of appreciation, as the European court has often recognised: see, for example, Internationale Humanitäre Hilfsorganisation eV v Germany, para 89. The decision is, furthermore, readily understandable. The terrorist nature of an organisation is not in the least diminished by the fact that it may gain control of territory, such as Hamas has done in Gaza or ISIL did in Raqqa, and administer it without recourse to terrorism in respect of its internal affairs, while continuing to engage in terrorism externally. Thirdly, the position of Hamas was considered by the European court in the case of Internationale Humanitäre Hilfsorganisation eV v Germany. As explained earlier, it concerned the proscription of an organisation which provided financial aid to Hamas. The European court noted that the entirety of Hamas was included by the European Union in the sanctions list of “persons, groups and entities involved in terrorist acts”, and that a challenge by Hamas to the listing had been dismissed by the Grand Chamber of the European Court of Justice (Council of the European Union v Hamas EU:C:2021:950; [2022] 4 WLR 26). The same approach had been adopted by the German authorities in the case before the court, which saw no reason to depart from that assessment (para 92). Similarly in relation to the organisation which was the applicant in that case, although it financed other projects which were not of a terrorist nature, the court accepted that its outright proscription was not disproportionate (para 99). The next point to note, in relation to the proportionality of the interference with freedom of expression, is that section 12(1A) only prohibits expressing an opinion or belief that is supportive of a proscribed organisation with the requisite recklessness as to the risk of encouraging other persons to support it. It does not prohibit the expression of views or opinions which are supportive of the aims of a proscribed organisation, such as a united Ireland or the ending of the Israeli occupation of Palestinian territory: it only prohibits the reckless encouragement of support from others for the proscribed organisation. Against that background, it is necessary to consider the compatibility of section 12(1A) with the Convention in the light of the approach which has been adopted by the European court to the application of article 10 in other cases concerned with comparable issues. The earlier jurisprudence of the European court in relation to terrorism and article 10 was mainly concerned with the situation in south-eastern Turkey. General principles were laid down by the Grand Chamber, in terms which have often been repeated in the subsequent case law, in Zana v Turkey (1997) 27 EHRR 667. The case concerned an interview given to journalists by the former mayor of the most important city in the region, following attacks by the PKK, a proscribed organisation, in which civilians had been killed. In the interview, the applicant said that he supported the PKK national liberation movement, that he was not in favour of massacres, that anyone could make mistakes, and that the PKK killed women and children by mistake. He was subsequently convicted and sentenced to twelve months’ imprisonment for the offence of having “defended an act punishable by law as a serious crime”. 112. The Grand Chamber observed that his conviction and sentence indubitably amounted to an interference with his exercise of his freedom of expression (para 45). As the conviction and sentence were based on articles of the criminal code, the interference was prescribed by law (para 47). The former mayor’s statement that he supported the PKK national liberation movement could have an impact such as to justify the national authorities’ taking a measure designed to maintain national security and public safety. The interference therefore pursued legitimate aims (para 50). In relation to the necessity of the interference, the applicant had expressed support for the PKK at a time when that organisation was carrying out murderous attacks on civilians. In those circumstances, the support given to the PKK by the former mayor had to be regarded as likely to exacerbate an already explosive situation (paras 59–60). Having regard to the margin of appreciation which national authorities have in such a case, the court considered that the interference was proportionate to the legitimate aims pursued (para 62). It is to be noted that the European court’s decision was based primarily on an assessment of the meaning of the statement in question and its potential consequences in the context in which it was made, rather than on any finding that the application had intended to encourage or incite the commission of terrorist acts, or had intended to encourage support for a terrorist organisation. The case of Hogefeld v Germany concerned a number of decisions by German courts. The first was their refusal of a journalist’s request to interview the applicant, a former member of a terrorist organisation, the Red Army Faction (“RAF”), who was being detained on remand. The request was refused on the ground that it was to be expected that the applicant would explain and advocate ideological positions of the RAF. The second decision was the court’s refusal of a filmmaker’s request to film a prison visit by the applicant’s mother. The request was refused on the ground that the film could enable the applicant to influence supporters of the RAF in order to strengthen their support, for example by commenting on the conditions of detention. Similar subsequent requests were also refused. The court considered that the German courts had a legitimate aim, namely to prevent the applicant from promoting the ideology of the RAF and influencing its supporters. Every state, it said, had a legitimate interest in fighting terrorism, which included the taking of measures intended to prevent the recruitment of members and supporters for terrorist organisations. Statements made by the applicant could possibly be understood by supporters as an appeal to continue the activities of the RAF. Having regard to the margin of appreciation granted to the national authorities in such cases, the interference was proportionate. In this case, again, the court’s focus appears to have been primarily on the potential content and consequences of the anticipated statements—specifically, on the possibility that they might have the effect of encouraging support for a terrorist organisation—rather than on whether the applicant had intended to encourage support for a terrorist organisation or to incite the commission of terrorist acts. 117. In relation to the more recent case law, counsel for the appellants referred to a number of cases brought against Turkey and Russia in which complaints were upheld. On examination, however, those cases appear to concern circumstances in which national security laws were being used in a disproportionate way with the effect of criminalising political opposition. For example, the first appellant relies on Novaya Gazeta v Russia (Application nos 11884/22 and 161 others) judgment of 11 February 2025, unreported, in which the European court reiterated that “while the protection of national security, territorial integrity and public safety may in principle constitute legitimate aims, these concepts must be applied with restraint and interpreted restrictively” (para 103). However, this case concerned systematic and widespread reporting restrictions introduced in Russia following its 2022 invasion of Ukraine. The European court found that the measures were intended to supress criticism of Russian military actions rather than to mitigate threats to national security (para 118), and its comments should be understood in that context. Two judgments to which the judge referred in the case of the second appellant are of greater relevance to the present situation. The first is the case of Leroy v France. The applicant was a cartoonist. On 11 September 2001, the day of the attack on the World Trade Centre, he drew a cartoon showing the attack, with the words “Nous en avions tous rêvé … Le Hamas l’a fait” (“We have all dreamt of it … Hamas did it”), a parody of an advertising slogan used by Sony. The cartoon was published two days later. The applicant maintained that it was intended to express his anti-Americanism and to illustrate the decline of American imperialism. He was convicted of complicity in apologie du terrorisme, and fined. The French court held that, by attributing the attack to a notorious terrorist organisation, and presenting it as the culmination of a dream which “we” had shared, the cartoonist justified the use of terrorism, and indirectly encouraged potential readers to form a positive view of the success of a criminal act. 119. The European court accepted that there was an interference with freedom of expression, that it was prescribed by law, and that it pursued legitimate aims, namely the interests of public safety and the prevention of disorder and crime (para 36). In considering whether the interference was necessary in a democratic society, the court noted the essential role played by the press in the proper functioning of a political democracy, and the fact that the events of 11 September 2001 fell within the scope of a debate of general interest (paras 40–41). However, it considered that the cartoonist had expressed his support and moral solidarity with those he presumed to be the perpetrators of the attacks. By the terms used, he judged favourably the violence perpetrated against thousands of civilians and undermined the dignity of the victims. The court approved the opinion of the French court that the applicant’s intentions were irrelevant to the prosecution (para 43). The court noted that the cartoon took on a particular significance, of which the applicant could not have been unaware, when it was submitted on the day of the attacks and published two days later, when the whole world was in shock (para 45). In these circumstances, and having regard in particular to the context in which the cartoon was published, the measure taken against the applicant was not disproportionate to the legitimate aim pursued (para 47). In this case, again, the court’s focus was on an objective assessment of the meaning and potential consequences of the statement in question in the context in which it was made, rather than on the applicant’s intentions. In particular, as in Zana v Turkey and Hogefeld v Germany, the fact that a statement, objectively understood, expressed support for terrorism was regarded as justifying the interference with freedom of expression, in the sensitive context in which the statement was made. Another relevant decision to which the judge referred in the case of the second appellant is that of Taşdemir v Turkey. In that case, the applicant took part in a demonstration during which he shouted the slogan “Long live Apo! HPG to the front line in retaliation!”. Apo was Abdullah Öcalan, the leader of the PKK. HPG was the armed wing of the PKK. The applicant was convicted of offences of approving of an offence committed and praising a person on account of an offence he had committed. The European court found that the conviction constituted an interference with his right to freedom of expression, that it was prescribed by law, and that it pursued legitimate aims, namely the protection of national security and public order. In determining whether the interference was necessary in a democratic society, the court considered that “the slogan shouted … amounts to an apology of terrorism” and that “the interference in question was therefore compatible with article 10(2)”. This decision is consistent with the approach adopted in Zana v Turkey, Hogefeld v Germany and Leroy v France. It has been distinguished by the court in some later cases concerned with the shouting of slogans during peaceful demonstrations, on the basis that the circumstances in those later cases had not involved any apology for terrorism or encouragement of violence: see, for example, Gül v Turkey, para 41 and Kiliç and Eren v Turkey, paras 29–30. 123. The final authority which needs to be considered in this connection is Internationale Humanitäre Hilfsorganisation eV v Germany. As explained earlier, it concerned the proscription of an organisation which provided financial aid to Hamas. In assessing the necessity of the interference, the court said that “its task is not to substitute its own view for that of the national authorities, which are better placed than an international court to decide both on legislative policy and on measures of implementation, but to review … the decisions they delivered in the exercise of their discretion” (para 80). The court went on to state that “the concept of international understanding is not only a prerequisite of the international legal order but also figures among the core values of the Convention, including in particular the principles of peaceful settlement of international conflicts and the sanctity of human life” (para 87). The court added that “the aims pursued by the prohibition of indirect support for terrorism as being contrary to the concept of international understanding are necessarily very weighty and states enjoy a wider margin of appreciation in that regard” (para 89). The court concluded that the interference was proportionate. In this body of case law, as more generally, the European court has adopted an approach which is sensitive to the facts of particular cases. Although some general principles have been repeated many times, the court has not attempted to distil more specific rules. Nevertheless, a number of factors have generally been treated as important. Amongst others, they include the following. First, the context in which the words in question are spoken or written can be significant: for example, whether the context is the aftermath of a terrorist attack, as in Leroy v France, or a location where tensions are high, as in Zana v Turkey. Secondly, whether the words can be understood as encouraging violence can be an important factor: the routine chanting of political slogans at a peaceful demonstration, for example, might not constitute such encouragement, and therefore would not justify restrictive measures, even if the literal meaning of what was said suggested otherwise, as in Gül v Turkey. Thirdly, the size of the relevant audience may be a material factor, as for example in Gerger v Turkey (Application no 24919/94) judgment of 8 July 1999, unreported, para 50. Fourthly, whether the words in question amounted to an “apology for terrorism” was an important factor in a number of the cases mentioned above. Fifthly, the nature and severity of the penalties imposed is an important consideration. In relation to the fourth of those factors, it is to be noted that the court’s decisions in cases such as Zana v Turkey, Hogefeld v Germany, Leroy v France and Taşdemir v Turkey were based primarily on an objective assessment of the meaning and potential consequences of the statement in question in the context in which it was made—in particular, on whether it might have the effect of encouraging support for a terrorist organisation—rather than on the applicant’s intentions. The fact that a statement, objectively understood, expressed support for terrorism was regarded as justifying the interference with freedom of expression, at least where the statement was made in a sensitive context. There is a degree of alignment between that approach and the conditions laid down in section 12(1A), although that provision does not confine itself to an objective assessment but also takes account of the defendant’s state of mind. As explained earlier, section 12(1A)(a) lays down the first requirement of an offence under that provision: that a person “expresses an opinion or belief that is supportive of a proscribed organisation”. As has been explained, the person must do so knowingly: para 82 above. Knowingly expressing an opinion or belief that is supportive of a terrorist organisation may be regarded as the essence of an apology for terrorism. The facts of such cases as Leroy v France (“We have all dreamt of it … Hamas did it”), charged as apologie du terrorisme, and Taşdemir v Turkey (“HPG to the front line in retaliation!”), treated by the court as “an apology of terrorism”, might in the United Kingdom have formed the basis of a charge under section 12(1A). 128. As explained above, the European court has also paid close attention to the circumstances in which support for terrorism is expressed, including whether there was a risk of encouraging violence: see, for example, Gül v Turkey,para 44 and Kiliç and Eren v Turkey, para 30. Section 12(1A)(b) also focuses on the circumstances in which support is expressed for the proscribed organisation, requiring that the person “in doing so is reckless as to whether a person to whom the expression is directed will be encouraged to support a proscribed organisation”. As explained at para 82 above, this means not only that there must in the circumstances have existed a risk that a person to whom the defendant’s expression of opinion or belief was directed would be encouraged to support the terrorist organisation, but in addition that (a) the defendant must have known of that risk, and (b) it must have been objectively unreasonable for the defendant to take that risk, in the circumstances known to him or her. This test, focusing as it does on the risk that the expression of support for the terrorist organisation will encourage support for that organisation, and on the defendant’s knowledge of that risk, ensures that expressions of support which carry no such risk will not constitute offences under section 12(1A). Viewed against the background of the foregoing analysis of the European case law, it is reasonable to conclude that, where all the elements of an offence under section 12(1A) are established, as set out in para 82 above, the interference with freedom of expression is in principle justifiable. It is however necessary to add two important qualifications. First, it is relevant to note the statement made by the Government, when the provision introducing section 12(1A) was being considered by Parliament (para 48 above). As was said then, it would be impractical to define on the face of the legislation, in more specific terms, particular forms of statement that will or will not fall within its scope: “such determinations will always be highly dependent on the facts and circumstances of particular cases, and can only be properly made by a court considering all of those matters in each case.” That aspect of proceedings under section 12(1A) is unavoidable, but it places a particular responsibility on the judge to consider whether a reasonable jury could be sure that all the elements of the offence have been proved. If the judge concludes that a reasonable jury could not be sure, then it is his duty to uphold a submission of no case to answer and to bring the proceedings to an end. In view of the importance of freedom of expression, and the risk that an overly broad application of section 12(1A) might discourage legitimate public debate, judges should be robust in exercising that power. The present cases illustrate the point. In the case of the first appellant there may, for example, be questions as to whether a jury could be sure that she expressed an opinion or belief which was objectively supportive of Hamas, which she never mentioned; if so, whether she did so knowingly, given her professed lack of knowledge about responsibility for the events of the previous day; and, if so, whether she was reckless as to whether any person to whom her words were directed would be encouraged to support Hamas. In the case of the second appellant there may, for example, be a question as to whether a jury could be sure that there was a more than minimal risk that any person to whom his words were directed—seemingly, tourists and passers-by at the entrance to Downing Street—would be encouraged to support Hamas. The second qualification is that, as already mentioned, the nature and severity of any penalty imposed are important factors to be taken into account when assessing the proportionality of an interference with freedom of expression (see, for example, Ceylan v Turkey (Application no 23556/94) (1999) 30 EHRR 73, para 37). There is therefore a responsibility on the judge under the Convention, as well as under domestic law, to ensure that any sentence imposed is proportionate. Conclusions For the foregoing reasons, the contention that section 12(1A) is inherently incompatible with Convention rights, either on the basis that the offence is too vague and uncertain for the interference with freedom of expression to be “prescribed by law”, or on the basis that the ingredients of the offence do not adequately balance the need to combat terrorism against individual rights to freedom of expression, must be rejected. 135. The contention that, in order for a conviction under section 12(1A) to be compatible with Convention rights, it is essential not only that all the ingredients of the offence must be proved, but in addition that a separate assessment must be carried out of whether a conviction would be a proportionate interference with the defendant’s right to freedom of expression, must also be rejected. An assessment of whether a conviction would be a proportionate interference with freedom of expression, where all the ingredients of the offence were proved, was first carried out by the Government in bringing forward the proposed legislation which became section 12(1A): as explained in para 35 above, the Government stated to Parliament its belief that the provisions of the 2019 Act were compatible with Convention rights. A further assessment was then carried out by Parliament when it considered whether to enact the legislation. That assessment included taking evidence from a wide range of interested parties, including experts in terrorism and counter-terrorism, and bodies with a particular concern to maintain civil liberties. Concerns were then raised, to which the Government responded, as explained at paras 34–48 above. A further assessment of the proportionality of convictions under section 12(1A) has been carried out by the courts below and by this court in the present judgment. There is no need for any further assessment by a trial court, and no basis in section 12(1A) on which such an assessment might be carried out in any event. The function of the trial court is to examine the facts of the individual case, including all the circumstances in which the statement in question was made, and to determine whether all of the ingredients of the offence, as set out in para 82 above, have been proved to the criminal standard. 137. There is nothing anomalous or even unusual about this result. Where national authorities decide that a criminal measure interfering with a Convention right is necessary in order to meet a pressing social need, the government proposes the legislation, and seeks to persuade the legislature that it is justified. If, after reviewing the justification for the interference, the legislature is persuaded of its necessity, it enacts the legislation. If the compatibility of the legislation with fundamental rights is then challenged in the courts, the justification for the interference will be the subject of judicial examination, as has occurred in the present proceedings. If the legislation withstands that examination, it is then the function of the criminal courts to apply its provisions in the circumstances of individual cases. In doing so, the criminal courts determine whether the provisions apply on particular facts, and thereby determine whether the interference is justified in each case. The performance of that function does not require the criminal courts to undertake a further review of the justification for the interference in the event that the provision is found to be applicable on the facts of an individual case: that question has already been examined, and the justification has been established. However, as explained above, in any proceedings brought under section 12(1A), the judge has a responsibility to ensure that the evidence as to the facts of the individual case is sufficient to prove each of the ingredients of the offence, so that a reasonable jury can be sure. The judge also has an important responsibility, under domestic sentencing law as well as under the Convention, to ensure the proportionality of any penalty imposed following conviction. 139. It is accordingly unnecessary to consider the submission that if, in a trial on indictment carried out under English criminal procedure, it was necessary to carry out an assessment of the compatibility of a conviction with article 10 of the Convention, that assessment would have to be carried out by the jury. The submission is not, however, an immediately attractive one, given that compatibility with Convention rights is a question of law, as was explained in Safe Access Zones, para 30, In re JR123 [2025] UKSC 8; [2025] AC 1256, para 35 and Shvidler v Secretary of State for Foreign, Commonwealth and Development Affairs [2025] UKSC 30; [2025] 3 WLR 346, para 145. Furthermore, as was explained in Safe Access Zones at paras 56–61, ensuring compatibility may, depending on the circumstances and the nature of the offence, involve the interpretation of a statutory offence in the light of section 3 of the Human Rights Act, or the development of a common law offence so as to avoid incompatibility, if and in so far as that may properly be done; or, if compatibility cannot be achieved by either of those means, it may require the application of section 6(2) of the Human Rights Act or, possibly, if section 6(2) is inapplicable, a stay of proceedings. None of these is a function which would normally or readily fall within the area of responsibility of the jury in an English criminal trial. In the circumstances, it follows that the certified question should be answered in the negative, that the appeals should be dismissed, and that the cases should be remitted to the Crown Court.

On TNA: From TNA: R v ABJ; R v BDN

26.02.2026 12:22 👍 0 🔁 0 💬 0 📌 0
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The UN principles shaping child online safety regulation UN principles developed in the late 1980s, including one which promotes the concept of the ‘best interests’ of a child, shape how policymakers globally regulate the online world today amidst the proliferation of digital services and increased legislative focus on the protection of children.

From Out-Law: The UN principles shaping child online safety regulation

26.02.2026 01:08 👍 0 🔁 0 💬 0 📌 0
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Section 230: will it last? A brief history Section 230 of the US Communications Act of 1934, enacted as part of the Communications Decency Act of 1996, is fundamental to the commercial development of the internet over the past 30 years. It has been called “the 26 words that made the Internet” – referring specifically to its subsection, 47 U.S.C. […] The post Section 230: will it last? appeared first on Internet for Lawyers Newsletter.

In our Newsletter: Section 230: will it last? #Publishersliability

25.02.2026 12:16 👍 0 🔁 0 💬 0 📌 0
Boyd v Public Prosecution Service for Northern Ireland - Find Case Law - The National Archives Appellant Philip Henry KC Lauren Cheshire (Instructed by Public Prosecution Service for Northern Ireland) LORD STEPHENS AND SIR DECLAN MORGAN (with whom Lord Lloyd-Jones, Lord Burrows and Lady Simler agree): This appeal deals with the circumstances in which a District Judge (Magistrates’ Courts) in Northern Ireland may reopen a case in which sentence has been passed in order to impose a different outcome. The legal power is found in article 158A of the Magistrates’ Courts (Northern Ireland) Order 1981 (“the 1981 Order”). Section 142 of the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980 (“the 1980 Act”) contains an identical provision so the outcome is also relevant to Magistrates’ Courts in England and Wales. Background On 28 June 2021 the respondent pleaded guilty at Ballymena Magistrates’ Court to possession of an offensive weapon in a public place, common assault, and criminal damage. The District Judge adjourned the case for the preparation of a probation report. The criminal damage charge related to damage to the home of a person who was unknown to the respondent and in her statement to police the homeowner undertook to forward the repairs estimate to police when received. The sentencing hearing proceeded on 10 August 2021. The District Judge enquired whether the Public Prosecution Service for Northern Ireland (“PPS”) had received either an estimate for the cost of the damage or an invoice but was advised that neither had been received. He imposed a probation order with conditions for a period of 12 months and a restraining order for the protection of the occupants of the property for a period of two years. On 31 August 2021 and 8 September 2021, the prosecutor with carriage of the case issued post decision information requests to the investigating officer, who responded on 19 October 2021. The prosecutor with carriage of the case had left her employment before this reply was received. The file was reviewed by a senior public prosecutor in March 2023 and on 6 April 2023 the prosecution lodged an application pursuant to article 158A of the 1981 Order requesting that the sentence be varied to include a compensation order in favour of the landlord. After hearing oral and written submissions, on 31 August 2023 the District Judge made a compensation order in the sum of £250. The respondent lodged a case stated application which was the subject of Court of Appeal proceedings as a result of which on 28 March 2024 the District Judge stated a case seeking determination of two points of law: whether article 158A empowers the Magistrates’ Court to vary a sentence by imposing a compensation order in circumstances where a compensation order was not previously imposed? and whether the purpose for which the District Judge purported to exercise the power under article 158A was a lawful purpose, given the terms on which the power is conferred by article 158A? Relevant Statutory Provisions Article 158A(1) of the 1981 Order provides as follows: —(1) A magistrates’ court may vary or rescind a sentence or other order imposed or made by it when dealing with an offender if it appears to the court to be in the interests of justice to do so; and it is hereby declared that this power extends to replacing a sentence or order which for any reason appears to be invalid by another which the court has power to impose or make.” 8. Article 14 of the Criminal Justice (Northern Ireland) Order 1994 (“the 1994 Order”) provides for compensation orders on conviction. —(1) Subject to the provisions of this Article, a court by or before which a person is convicted of an offence, instead of or in addition to dealing with him in any other way, may, on application or otherwise, make an order (in this Article … referred to as ‘a compensation order’) requiring him to pay compensation for any personal injury, loss or damage resulting from that offence … and a court shall give reasons, on passing sentence, if it does not make such an order in a case where this Article empowers it to do so. Compensation under paragraph (1) shall be of such amount as the court considers appropriate, having regard to any evidence and to any representations that are made by or on behalf of the offender or the prosecution … In determining whether to make a compensation order against any person, and in determining the amount to be paid by any person under such an order, the court shall— have regard to his means so far as they appear or are known to the court … that it would be appropriate both to impose a fine and to make a compensation order; but that the offender has insufficient means to pay both an appropriate fine and appropriate compensation, the court shall give preference to compensation (though it may impose a fine as well) … A compensation order shall be enforceable— if made by a magistrates' court, in the same manner as any other sum adjudged to be paid by a conviction of that court …” In the case stated the District Judge found that there had been a series of mistakes including a failure by the prosecution to secure the information necessary to apply for a compensation order, a failure of the prosecution to apply for an adjournment in order to get such information, and a failure by the court to adjourn the application to enable that information to be obtained. In addition, it may be said that there was a failure by the District Judge to address the requirements of article 14(1) of the 1994 Order since this was a case where the court was entitled to make an order in respect of the criminal damage. In submissions to the District Judge the respondent had contended that the application was out of time. Arguing that the PPS has only 21 days to appeal any court’s decision, a time limit which is strictly observed, it was submitted that reopening cases years later would undermine finality, closure, and effectiveness in the criminal justice system creating chaos. The District Judge addressed the point and concluded that, in light of the extent of the damage caused and the financial loss incurred by the property owner, of which the offender was aware, the balance fell in favour of making the order despite the passage of time. 11. The Court of Appeal accepted the argument advanced by the respondent on the first question of law (see para 6 above) that the proper approach was to disaggregate each element of the sentencing package and determine whether the proposal involves a variation of that element or an addition to the sentencing package. Since, in this case, the relevant orders were a probation order and a restraining order, a compensation order could not be a variation of either and accordingly the court concluded that the District Judge erred in law since an addition could not be a variation. The court also accepted that the purpose of the legislation was to correct mistakes in limited circumstances to avoid the need for additional proceedings. The court held, however, that it was extremely difficult to envisage any case in which mistakes made by the prosecution would engage the power to make a variation and that the decision by the court not to adjourn the proceedings was not a mistake just because it might have been better or more prudent to do so. The finding on the first question as reformulated by the court was sufficient to dispose of the appeal. The court went on, however, to consider the respondent’s additional submission (in support of the second ground of appeal in para 6 above) that the interests of justice in certainty and finality were such that it could not be correct to permit the reopening of cases years after the event where further information had been obtained. The court accepted the submission of the prosecution that the District Judge had considered the question of delay and taken this into account in assessing the sum ordered. His purpose was to give effect to article 14 of the 1994 Order and to avoid unnecessary proceedings in other courts. The court concluded that this was a course that was reasonably open to him. The appellant’s concession The Statement of Facts and Issues in this case focused on the first question determined by the Court of Appeal namely whether the making of the compensation order on 31 August 2023 constituted a variation of the sentence or other order imposed or made on 10 August 2021. In particular, the respondent did not initially apply to raise the argument advanced in the Court of Appeal that the application was unlawful by reason of the passage of time. The appellant, however, at paragraph 15 of its written submission to this court stated that on careful reflection the PPS accepted that it should not have made the application because of the period of time that had elapsed since the original sentencing hearing. Mr Henry KC indicated that the concession was made on the basis that the PPS now accepted that it was not in the interests of justice to pursue the matter having regard to the period which had elapsed. The concession was properly made. The common law principle that a sentence was effective from the date on which it was pronounced has long been recognised by the courts (R v Menocal [1980] AC 598). Prior to the abolition of the Assizes the practice in both Northern Ireland and England and Wales was that the sentence was not treated as effective until the assize record had been signed by the Assize judges. This provided an opportunity to correct any errors or to review occasionally sentences that needed some moderation. When the Crown Court was established in Northern Ireland by the Judicature (Northern Ireland) Act 1978 section 49 of that Act provided that a sentence imposed, or other order made, by the Crown Court when dealing with an offender may be varied or rescinded by the Crown Court within the period of 28 days beginning with the day on which the sentence or other order was imposed or made unless the court otherwise directed. That reflected the Assize practice that there should be a short window in which sentences might be reconsidered for lawfulness and in some cases for leniency. Although it also enabled a judge to increase a sentence, that was an exceptional course. Similar provisions were made earlier in England and Wales, now contained in section 385 of the Sentencing Act 2020, and in each jurisdiction the time limit has now been increased by statute to 56 days. The time limit is strictly applied and the increase in the permitted time reflects the fact that in a number of apparently deserving cases the relevant material justifying the application was not apparent until the 28 day period had elapsed. The existence of such a power in the Magistrates’ Courts first appeared in section 142 of the 1980 Act. By section 142(4) the power to vary or rescind a sentence or other order imposed or made by it when dealing with an offender was only exercisable within the period of 28 days beginning with the day on which the sentence or order was imposed. Although the 1981 Order was similar in many respects to the 1980 Act it contained no provision for such a power to vary a sentence or other order in Northern Ireland. The provisions in both jurisdictions were amended by the Criminal Appeal Act 1995 which amended the 1981 Order by introducing article 158A and removed the time limit in section 142 of the 1980 Act. In each case the provision for a time limit was replaced by an interests of justice test. The statutory history up to 1995 provided a limited time in which there could be departure from the common law principle. That remains the position in the Crown Court albeit that the time period for adjustment has been extended. The interests of justice test did not undermine the legal policy that departure from the general rule could only be made if there was expedition. That is particularly the case where it is proposed to increase the penalty. That position is supported by long standing authority. R (Holme) v Liverpool City Justices [2004] EWHC 3131 (Admin); 169 JP 306 was a dangerous driving case in which an application was made to increase a sentence on the basis that the court had left out of account the impact of the driving on the victim. The application was made five months after the delivery of sentence. The Court held that if the power was to be available the interests of justice required that it should be used very expeditiously. On that basis the application could not succeed. In this case the application was made 19 months after the sentence had been given and the variation was made more than two years after the original sentence at a time when the probation order and the restraining order were no longer in force. These periods are far beyond those that could be permitted in the interests of justice. Having properly made the concession Mr Henry accepted that there should be no interference with the order of the Court of Appeal quashing the variation order imposed by the District Judge. He submitted however that the court should proceed to hear and determine the issues arising on the first question of law. The court was informed that this power is commonly used in cases in which a mandatory disqualification is required under article 40 of the Road Traffic Offenders (Northern Ireland) Order 1996 on reaching 12 penalty points. On occasions the information on accumulated penalty points is either not available or not put before the court when the 12 point limit has been reached. An application under article 158A is necessary in these cases to correct the order by imposing a mandatory disqualification. If the reasoning of the Court of Appeal is correct its approach is likely to have a significant impact on these and other cases. In light of the concession by the appellant and agreement that the order of the Court of Appeal quashing the variation order should not be disturbed there is no longer a live issue between the parties. It remains the case, however, that the provision at issue is one which is regularly used and the dispute between the parties about how it operates is not one which depends on the facts of this particular case. In R v Secretary of State for the Home Department ex parte Salem [1999] UKHL 8; [1999] 1 AC 450 (“Salem”) the House of Lords established that in cases involving a public authority as to an issue of public law there is a discretion to hear the case even if there is no longer a live issue between the parties. The discretion must be exercised with caution in such cases and appeals which are academic between the parties should not be heard unless there is a good reason in the public interest for doing so. This is a case involving a discrete point of statutory construction, not dependent on the facts of the case, on which a significant number of similar cases is likely to be affected. There is a need to resolve the issue in the near future. Applying the Salem principles, this is a case in which it is appropriate to proceed on this appeal to deal with the issues arising from the first question of law. The interpretation of article 158A of the 1981 Order The Court of Appeal concluded that the meaning of the words “sentence or other order” in this section required consideration of each component of the sentence or orders made and determination of whether what was proposed was a variation of that component. Inevitably that ruled out any utilisation of the section if some feature had been omitted in error. The appellant contended that the words in question referred to the sentencing package imposed by the judge and that the sentencing package could be varied by adding some component that had been omitted but is thought appropriate. Normal principles of statutory interpretation are engaged. The courts in conducting statutory interpretation are seeking to ascertain the meaning of the words used in a statutory provision in the light of their context and the purpose of the provision: see for instance, R (Project for the Registration of Children as British Citizens) v Secretary of State for the Home Department [2022] UKSC 3; [2023] AC 255, paras 28–29; News Corp UK & Ireland Ltd v Revenue and Customs Comrs [2023] UKSC 7; [2024] AC 89, para 27; R (N3) v Secretary of State for the Home Department [2025] UKSC 6; [2025] AC 1473, paras 61–63; Darwall v Dartmoor National Park Authority [2025] UKSC 20; [2025] AC 1292, para 15; X v Lord Advocate [2025] UKSC 44; [2026] 2 WLR 43, para 22. 28. A leading statement of principle was given by Lord Hodge in R (Project for the Registration of Children as British Citizens) v Secretary of State for the Home Department, with whom those in the majority agreed. He stated, at para 29: “The courts in conducting statutory interpretation are ‘seeking the meaning of the words which Parliament used’: Black-Clawson International Ltd v Papierwerke Waldhof-Aschaffenburg AG [1975] AC 591, 613 per Lord Reid. More recently, Lord Nicholls of Birkenhead stated: ‘Statutory interpretation is an exercise which requires the court to identify the meaning borne by the words in question in the particular context.’ (R v Secretary of State for the Environment, Transport and the Regions, Ex p Spath Holme Ltd [2001] 2 AC 349, 396). Words and passages in a statute derive their meaning from their context. A phrase or passage must be read in the context of the section as a whole and in the wider context of a relevant group of sections. Other provisions in a statute and the statute as a whole may provide the relevant context. They are the words which Parliament has chosen to enact as an expression of the purpose of the legislation and are therefore the primary source by which meaning is ascertained. There is an important constitutional reason for having regard primarily to the statutory context as Lord Nicholls explained in Spath Holme, p 397: ‘Citizens, with the assistance of their advisers, are intended to be able to understand parliamentary enactments, so that they can regulate their conduct accordingly. They should be able to rely upon what they read in an Act of Parliament.’” The purpose of article 158A of the 1981 Order was addressed by Carswell LCJ in In re Director of Public Prosecutions for Northern Ireland’s Application for Judicial Review [2000] NI 49 at p 54C: “The main purpose of art 158A(1) is to enable magistrates to remedy mistakes or to amend a sentence or order when they have imposed or made it under a misapprehension and it is in the interests of justice that they should put matters right. In particular the provision allows them to impose a sentence or make an order within their jurisdiction if they have inadvertently exceeded their powers, without the necessity to come to this court to have the sentence quashed. It is not, however, restricted to this and the court may vary or rescind any sentence or order whenever it is in the interests of justice to do so. We do not feel that we should attempt to define the power any more closely.” In R (Williamson) v City of Westminster Magistrate’s Court [2012] EWHC 1444 Admin); [2012] 2 Cr App R 24 Burnett J stated, at para 31, that the introduction of the power in section 142 of the 1980 Act was designed to deal with an obvious mischief; namely the waste of time, energy and resources in correcting clear mistakes made in Magistrates’ Courts by using appellate or review proceedings. 31. The Crown Court power in England and Wales to exercise this jurisdiction which is now contained in section 385 of the Sentencing Act 1980 was considered in R v Luxton (Bradley) [2024] EWCA Crim 340; [2024] 1 WLR 4804. At para 34 Edis LJ discussed the breadth of the power: It is to be noted that the [Sentencing Act 2020] does not require some error of law or fact as a condition precedent of the exercise of the power. Specifically, it does not provide that if an error has occurred, there is no power to correct it because the error was that of the prosecutor. It is possible that the phrase ‘slip rule’ suggests a more restrictive approach than the [Sentencing Act 2020] requires …” He went on to comment on the basis for the exercise of restraint in the use of the power at para 38: In our judgment this restriction is a matter of practice not jurisdiction … It reflects good sentencing practice. There must be some finality to decision making and a judge should avoid revisiting reasonable decisions. Judges are busy people and do not have time to do every case twice. It is unkind to victims, defendants and others involved in the proceedings and disruptive to the conduct of other cases to convene post- sentencing hearings where they are unnecessary …” Those comments are also appropriate for those cases being dealt with in the Magistrates’ Court under article 158A of the 1981 Order or section 142 of the 1980 Act. There is little practical difference between the approaches of Carswell LCJ and Edis LJ. Both recognise the breadth of the provision and Edis LJ complements that in his analysis of the practical considerations in play. Both agree with Burnett J that the main purpose of the provision is to deal with an obvious mischief, namely the waste of time, energy, and resources in correcting clear mistakes made in Magistrates’ Courts by using appellate or review proceedings. The provision is available even if the error was that of the prosecution. The Court of Appeal took an unduly narrow approach to the exercise of this provision. First, the reference to “sentence or other order” in article 158A of the 1981 Order is clearly a reference to the entire sentencing package. The similar term is used in article 140 of the 1981 Order to describe the sentencing package in the context of an appeal. Although there is an express provision in article 140 to make that position clear, it would be surprising if the same term in article 158A in the context of a provision correcting an error in the sentencing process carried a different meaning. Second, the primary purpose of the section is to provide a mechanism for the correction of mistakes that can be conveniently rectified in the Magistrates’ Court thereby avoiding further proceedings by way of appeal or judicial review. Such errors can arise in various ways including as a result of conduct by the prosecution. The statutory purpose is not achieved by narrowing the nature of mistakes that can be addressed and thereby increasing the number of cases that must go through the appeal or judicial review route. The interests of justice test provides an appropriate safety net against misuse. Third, the range of sentencing options available has become more diverse including probation and restraining orders as in this case as well as a range of non-custodial sentences balancing the needs of retribution, deterrence, rehabilitation, reparation and public safety. With these provisions come obligations to impose orders such as disqualification, to advise offenders of their duty to register in certain circumstances or as here to consider a compensation order and give reasons if not making such an order. There is no basis for concluding that the statutory purpose would be served by not allowing the power to be used where there had been an omission to consider some such order or to so advise the offender. The power must include the power to vary by addition. Fourth, a restriction on the use of the power to vary can give rise to absurdity. Article 2 of the 1981 Order dealing with interpretation provides that “order” in the 1981 Order includes a refusal to make an order. In this case the District Judge did not make a compensation order at the sentencing hearing although he did ask about the cost of the damage. On the basis of the Court of Appeal’s approach, if he had refused to make a compensation order it would then have been within the competence of the court to vary that refusal, but because he merely failed to make any order there was no power to use the provision. The Court of Appeal was right to consider that the orders made by the District Judge including the compensation order were individual elements of the sentence but wrong to confine the power to vary to those individual elements and wrong to conclude that errors made as a result of prosecution mistakes were outside the scope of the article. For the reasons given, the variation order should remain quashed.

On TNA: From TNA: Boyd v Public Prosecution Service for Northern Ireland

25.02.2026 10:43 👍 0 🔁 0 💬 0 📌 0
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Major contract update project attaches to EU digital omnibus reforms Businesses should not wait for EU data and digital laws to be updated before beginning the process of reviewing and updating relevant contracts, experts have said.

From Out-Law: Major contract update project attaches to EU digital omnibus reforms

24.02.2026 22:12 👍 0 🔁 0 💬 0 📌 0
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Drug misuse in England and Wales: implications for family law Marie Law, Director of Toxicology at AlphaBiolabs, examines the latest ONS data on drug misuse and its implications for toxicology testing in family law cases. Substance misuse continues to play a significant role in family law proceedings, influencing decisions around safeguarding, parenting capacity and contact arrangements. The latest Office for National Statistics (ONS) data (11 […] The post Drug misuse in England and Wales: implications for family law appeared first on The infolaw Partner Showcase.

Partner article: Drug misuse in England and Wales: implications for family law #Alcoholanddrugtesting #Family

19.02.2026 18:56 👍 0 🔁 0 💬 0 📌 0
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Agentic AI poses new challenges around online payments Processes for completing online payments may need to be reconfigured by online retailers and payment service providers to enable consumers to complete transactions using AI agents, an expert has said.

From Out-Law: Agentic AI poses new challenges around online payments

19.02.2026 02:28 👍 0 🔁 0 💬 0 📌 0
CCC v Sheffield Teaching Hospitals NHS Foundation Trust - Find Case Law - The National Archives THE HIGH COURT ORDERED that pursuant to CPR Rule 39.2(4), there shall not be disclosed in any report of these proceedings or other publication the name or address of the Appellant, the Appellant’s Litigation Friend or other immediate family members, or any information that could lead to the identification of CCC or MMM. That order continues to apply. Hilary Term [2026] UKSC 5 On appeal from: [2023] EWHC 1770 (KB) CCC (by her mother and litigation friend MMM) (Appellant) v Sheffield Teaching Hospitals NHS Foundation Trust (Respondent) LORD REED (with whom Lord Briggs agrees): The claimant suffered a severe brain injury as a consequence of hypoxia during her birth in 2015. The hypoxia resulted from clinical negligence for which the defendant health authority has accepted responsibility. The claimant has been entirely dependent on others since the time of her birth. There is no prospect of improvement. Her life expectancy is agreed to be 29. 2. At the trial on the issue of damages, the parties agreed that if the claimant had not sustained injury she would have had a normal life expectancy, that she was likely to have worked to the age of 68, and that she would have received some sort of pension for the remainder of her life. It was also agreed that she was likely to have gained GCSEs and higher qualifications from college or university leading to paid employment. The claimant’s loss of earnings to the age of 29 was agreed to be £160,000, on the basis that, but for her injury, she would have entered the workplace after further education in a similar line of work to her aunts or her mother. There was unchallenged evidence as to their occupations, and that the claimant came from a very hard-working family background. There was also evidence that the claimant’s brother, then aged 16, was doing well academically, planned to remain in the sixth form at school and hoped to read law at university. The agreed figure for loss of earnings to age 29 was approved by the judge, Ritchie J: [2023] EWHC 1770 (KB); [2024] 1 WLR 1307, para 171. The fact that professionally advised parties have been able to reach such an agreement is something to be borne in mind when considering assertions about the difficulties of proof in cases of this kind. The parties also agreed that the judge was barred from making any award for pecuniary losses during the lost years (ie the additional years of life which the claimant would have enjoyed if she had not been injured), by reason of the decision of the Court of Appeal in Croke v Wiseman [1982] 1 WLR 71 to the effect that such awards cannot be made in cases where the claimant is a young child. In the circumstances, the judge declined to assess damages for the lost years, but granted a certificate for a leapfrog appeal to this court to enable the correctness of the decision in Croke v Wiseman to be brought under review: [2023] EWHC 1905 (KB). Permission to appeal to this court was then granted. The principal question of law which the court has to decide is whether Croke v Wiseman is consistent with the earlier decisions of the House of Lords in Pickett v British Rail Engineering Ltd [1980] AC 136 (“Pickett”) and Gammell v Wilson [1982] AC 27 (“Gammell”), the reasoning in which was not challenged. The court has heard no argument as to the basis on which damages for pecuniary losses during the lost years are awarded: in particular, whether they are intended to compensate for the non-receipt in the future of economic benefits which, but for the injury, the claimant would have received during the lost years, or whether they are intended to compensate for the immediate diminution in the claimant’s earning capacity, viewed as a capital asset. That is a matter which it would be desirable to clarify when the opportunity arises, as it may have implications for the damages recoverable in some cases. The court has also heard little argument as to the method by which damages for the lost years should be assessed. Counsel for the claimant argued for an award based on the approach generally adopted in cases involving adult claimants: the application of an appropriate multiplier for the period of the lost years to a multiplicand representing the net annual income lost during that period, under deduction of personal living expenses. Counsel for the defendant’s primary argument was that there should be no award at all in cases where the claimant is a young child, on the basis that the loss was speculative and incapable of quantification. Alternatively, counsel for the defendant argued for a small conventional award to signify a loss of choice, drawing an analogy with “wrongful birth” cases such as Rees v Darlington Memorial Hospital NHS Trust [2003] UKHL 52; [2004] 1 AC 309. 7. Proceeding, therefore, on the basis that the reasoning in Pickett and Gammell in relation to lost years claims is not in question on this appeal, there are a number of propositions on which all the members of the court are agreed: Pickett established, and Gammell confirmed, that damages for pecuniary losses during the lost years are recoverable in English law. Although the reasoning in Pickett may have been influenced by a concern about the position of the claimant’s dependants, on the assumption, subsequently questioned in Gregg v Scott [2005] UKHL 2; [2005] 2 AC 176,para 182, that no dependants’ claim under section 1 of the Fatal Accidents Act 1976 could subsist after the injured party had recovered damages for his injury, Pickett and Gammell do not restrict lost years damages to claimants who have, or may in future have, dependants. Lost years damages are in principle available to claimants who were injured during early childhood, provided that the loss can be proved in accordance with normal principles. To calculate damages for the lost years, it is usual to apply a multiplier derived from actuarial tables known as the Ogden Tables, reflecting the number of lost years (ie the difference between the claimant’s actual life expectancy and the life expectancy which the claimant would have enjoyed but for the injury), but discounted so as to allow for the fact that a lump sum is being given now instead of periodical payments over those years (and also to allow for any contingencies not already taken into account), to a multiplicand reflecting the net annual loss during that period (ie the loss of annual income net of tax, and after deduction of the claimant’s probable living expenses). Against that background, the issue which the court has to decide is the correctness of the decision in Croke v Wiseman that lost years damages cannot be awarded to a young child. In order to address that question, it is necessary to place Croke v Wiseman in the context of the authorities which preceded and followed it. 9. There is support in the authorities for the view that, at one time, damages for loss of earnings or loss of earning capacity, in a case where life expectancy was reduced, were assessed with regard to the probable working life of the claimant if he or she had not been injured. The earliest reported example appears to be Phillips v London and South Western Railway Co (1879) 5 QBD 78, concerned with a physician who had been severely injured in an accident, and whose life expectancy had been reduced. After reciting a passage from the trial judge’s summing up, James LJ said at p 87: “That comes to this, you are to consider what his income would probably have been, how long that income would probably have lasted, and you are to take into consideration all the other contingencies to which a practice is liable. I do not know how otherwise the case could be put.” In Roach v Yates [1938] 1 KB 256, where the claimant had suffered injuries which shortened his life expectancy and rendered him unfit for work, Slesser LJ said at p 268 that the proper approach was “first to consider what sum he would have been likely to make during his normal life if he had not met with the accident”. However, it is difficult to find any case in which the question was the subject of argument until Harris v Brights Asphalt Contractors Ltd [1953] 1 QB 617, where Slade J concluded that pecuniary claims for the lost years were impermissible. The opposite view was subsequently taken by Streatfeild J in Pope v D Murphy & Son Ltd [1961] 1 QB 222. That divergence of views had to be resolved by the Court of Appeal in Oliver v Ashman [1962] 2 QB 210. 12. In Oliver v Ashman the claimant had received a serious brain injury at the age of 20 months, and would require constant care for the rest of his life. His life expectancy was reduced. At first instance, Lord Parker CJ followed Pope v D Murphy & Son Ltd and proceeded on the basis that damages could be awarded for loss of earnings during the lost years: [1961] 1 QB 337. He acknowledged the difficulty of assessing such loss in the case of such a young a child (p 344): “What education would the parents have been able to give the child? If one or other of them died, would the education have been interrupted? If not, how far would the child have succeeded? What trade or profession would he take up and what would he have earned? There is no conceivable clue to that. The only guide, if it be any guide at all – and I do not think that it is – is that his father is working in an executive capacity making, I am told, £1,250 a year. In addition, there are questions of taxation and other matters, but whatever view one takes as to eventual earnings, the figure must in the case of such a young child be heavily discounted.” The Lord Chief Justice built an unspecified but evidently modest amount for the lost years into his award of general damages. 13. On appeal, the Court of Appeal had to decide which of Harris v Brights Asphalt Contractors Ltd and Pope v D Murphy & Son Ltd had been rightly decided. It favoured Harris v Brights Asphalt Contractors Ltd. In reaching that conclusion, the court relied on a dictum of Viscount Simon LC in the case of Benham v Gambling [1941] AC 157. That case concerned a claim for loss of expectation of life brought under the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1934 by the estate of a child of two and a half who was injured in a road accident and died later the same day. The Lord Chancellor explained at p 162 that the only issue with which the House was concerned was the assessment of damages for loss of expectation of life. He said at p 167: “Of course, no regard must be had to financial losses or gains during the period of which the victim has been deprived. The damages are in respect of loss of life, not loss of future pecuniary prospects”. The other members of the Appellate Committee agreed. The right to claim damages for loss of expectation of life was subsequently abolished by statute: Administration of Justice Act 1982, section 1. In Oliver v Ashman, the Court of Appeal treated Viscount Simon’s dictum as establishing that damages could not be recovered for pecuniary loss during the lost years. Although Lord Parker CJ was held to have erred in following Pope v D Murphy & Son Ltd, his award was upheld as being within reasonable limits. The decision of the Court of Appeal in Oliver v Ashman was in turn overruled by a majority of their Lordships in Pickett, on the basis that the Court of Appeal had misinterpreted Benham v Gambling. The decision in Pickett authoritatively established the recoverability of damages for loss of earnings during the lost years. That outcome was regarded as desirable in the interests of justice, as the appeal proceeded, rightly or wrongly, on the assumption that an award in favour of the victim of the tort in respect of his own loss would bar any subsequent claim by his dependants under section 1 of the Fatal Accidents Act 1976. On that view, if the damages recovered by the victim of the tort did not include damages for the lost years, then his dependants would be left without provision after his death. However, the decision was reached on the basis of common law principles and after consideration of relevant authorities, as an examination of the speeches of the majority makes clear. Lord Salmon, for example, observed at p 154 that to ignore the lost years would be to ignore the long established principles of the common law in relation to the assessment of damages. Their Lordships also took account of the earlier decision of the High Court of Australia to similar effect in Skelton v Collins [1966] HCA 16; (1966) 115 CLR 94: a decision reached by common law reasoning, uninfluenced by any concern about a perceived lacuna in the protection afforded to dependants under English legislation. 17. The case of Pickett was concerned solely with the victim of the tort’s inability to earn remuneration during the lost years, and did not raise any issue about deprivation of the capacity to receive other economic benefits, such as inheritances (a matter which troubled Lord Russell) or pensions (a matter which has subsequently been discussed in the Australian case law). In relation to the conceptual basis of the award, two strands of thinking can be seen in the speeches. Lord Wilberforce focused on an immediate diminution of earning power, viewed as a capital asset: he described the victim’s capability to earn a living throughout his pre-injury working life as “an asset of present value”, and as an interest with a value which could be assessed (pp 149-150). On that approach, the loss is immediate and is suffered by the living claimant. On the other hand, Lord Salmon at p 152 and Lord Scarman at p 168 appear to have viewed the award as compensation for the non-receipt of a revenue stream which would have accrued in the future, analogous to a conventional award for loss of future earnings. As the latter approach appears to treat the loss as being suffered at a time when the claimant will have died, it has given rise to a debate over whether such awards have a logically coherent basis. The approach adopted may also have implications in relation to the treatment of other economic benefits which the claimant would or might have received during the lost years if he or she had then been living. Importantly, for present purposes, Pickett did not concern a claimant who had been injured as a child: the claimant was a married man in his fifties with two children, who had developed mesothelioma as a result of exposure to asbestos at work. However, some of their Lordships referred, obiter, to the difficulties involved in proving loss of earnings during the lost years in claims brought by children. 19. Lord Wilberforce said at p 150 that, in the case of the adult wage earner, a rule which enabled the lost years to be taken into account came closer to the ordinary man’s expectations than one which limited his interest to his shortened span of life. He added that he did not think that to act in that way created insoluble problems of assessment in other cases: “In that of a young child (cf Benham v Gambling [1941] AC 157), neither present nor future earnings could enter into the matter: in the more difficult case of adolescents just embarking upon the process of earning (cf Skelton v Collins (1966) 115 CLR 94) the value of ‘lost’ earnings might be real but would probably be assessable as small.” It was therefore Lord Wilberforce’s view that no award in respect of the lost years could be made in the case of a young child, seemingly because the difficulties of assessment were greater than in the case of an adolescent or an adult. The observation was obiter, as the question did not arise for decision. Lord Salmon considered that in the case of a young child “the lost earnings are so unpredictable and speculative that only a minimal sum could properly be awarded” (p 153). Referring to Oliver v Ashman, he added that “in the case of a child of such tender years, the amount of the earnings which he might have lost was so speculative and unpredictable that the sum in the award attributable to that element must have been minimal and could therefore be disregarded” (p 156). Lord Scarman described the major objections to awards for loss of earnings during the lost years as including that “the plaintiff may be so young (in Oliver v Ashman [1962] 2 QB 210 he was a boy aged 20 months at the time of the accident) that it is absurd that he should be compensated for future loss of earnings” (p 169). His response to that objection was that it would be taken care of in the ordinary course of litigation: “a measurable and not too remote loss has to be proved before it can enter into the assessment of damages” (p 170). In summary, therefore, Pickett did not decide that a claim by a young child for damages for pecuniary loss during the lost years was impossible as a matter of legal principle. On the contrary, the possibility of such a claim was acknowledged by Lord Salmon and Lord Scarman, although the difficulties involved in proof and assessment were also noted, and seem to have been regarded by Lord Wilberforce as insuperable. In Gammell, the House of Lords took the matter a stage further, by deciding that a victim’s right to recover damages in respect of the lost years in accordance with Pickett could be asserted in a claim brought after the victim’s death on behalf of his or her estate, under section 1 of the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1934. In the first appeal the deceased was a boy of 15. In the second appeal the deceased was a man aged 22, unmarried and living with his parents. Only Lord Scarman made any observations about claims by young children, stating that “the lost years of earning capacity will ordinarily be so distant that assessment is mere speculation. No estimate being possible, no award – not even a ‘conventional’ award – should ordinarily be made” (p 78). He accepted that there would be exceptions: “a child television star, cut short in her prime at the age of five, might have a claim: it would depend on the evidence” (ibid). He went on to say that “in all cases it is a matter of evidence and a reasonable estimate based upon it” (ibid). Those observations, like the earlier comments in Pickett, indicate that the age of the victim is not as a matter of principle relevant to the question whether a claim can be made for the lost years, although it will evidently affect the nature of the evidence available in support of the claim. The Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1934 was amended soon after Gammell so as to prevent claims being made on behalf of the estates of deceased victims in respect of loss of income during the lost years: Administration of Justice Act 1982, section 4(2). However, it remained possible for claims for loss of earnings during the lost years to be brought by living victims. Lord Scarman’s speech in Gammell influenced the decision in Connolly v Camden and Islington Health Authority [1981] 3 All ER 250, where a claim was brought on behalf of a four year old child who had suffered brain damage shortly after birth. The claim for lost years damages was assessed at nil. The judge accepted that “a child qualifies as such under this head of damage dependent on the ability to prove”, and said that he could envisage an award being made to “the only son of a father who owns a prosperous business” or “the son who is born to a farmer who is able to leave the estate to the son” (p 256). The claimant, being the son of an unemployed plasterer, was less fortunate. The case of Croke v Wiseman concerned a claim brought on behalf of a child who had suffered a severe injury at the age of 21 months, causing total disability and a reduced expectation of life. The three members of the Court of Appeal each gave a judgment. Lord Denning MR considered that no award should be made either for loss of lifetime earnings (ie the loss of earnings during the period of life remaining to the claimant following his injury) or for the lost years. No logical distinction could in his view be drawn between the two heads of damage in a case where a young child was injured. In each case the process of assessment was equally speculative (p 77). 29. Griffiths LJ considered that an award could be made for loss of lifetime earnings, but not for the lost years. Although it was difficult to assess an appropriate sum to award a young child for loss of future earnings, the courts frequently made such awards: for example, around 400 awards for loss of earnings had been made to children affected by thalidomide. In Oliver v Ashman itself, Lord Parker CJ’s award for future loss of earnings had not been questioned. On the facts of the case before him, Griffiths LJ agreed with the judge that loss of future earnings could appropriately be assessed on the basis of the national average wage (p 83): “This child came from an excellent home, the father is an enterprising man starting his own business and the mother is a qualified teacher; they have shown the quality of their characters by the care they have given their child and their courage by the fact they have continued with their family even after this disaster befell them. The defendants cannot complain that they are unfairly treated if against this background the judge assumes the child will grow up to lead a useful working life and be capable of at least earning the national average wage.” As Griffiths LJ pointed out, the assessment of damages for the lost years involved an additional complication. Following the reasoning in Pickett, it was necessary to make an assessment of the claimant’s living expenses during those years, which fell to be deducted from the lost earnings in order to quantify the damage suffered. However, it was for reasons of social policy that, in Griffiths LJ’s view, a distinction should be drawn, in relation to claims for injuries suffered by children, between damages for loss of lifetime earnings and damages for the lost years. 31. In his view, there were compelling social reasons for making an award for the lost years in the case of a living claimant of mature years, as the damages would be available for the support of his dependants after his death. Griffiths LJ considered that it was that consideration which led to the result in Pickett; and the House of Lords had felt compelled to apply the same principle, in Gammell, to a claim brought on behalf of the estate of a deceased victim. In the case of a child, however, there were no dependants, and if the child was dead or the injuries were catastrophic, there would never be dependants. In such circumstances, Griffiths LJ said, “it seems to me entirely right that the court should refuse to speculate as to whether in the future there might have been dependants for the purpose of providing a fund of money for persons who will in fact never exist” (p 82). On the other hand, in the case of a gravely injured child who was going to live for many years into adult life, there were compelling social reasons why a sum of money should be awarded for his future loss of earnings, as it would be available to provide a home for him and to feed him and to provide for such extra comforts as he could appreciate. The third member of the court, Shaw LJ, made two important observations about the law of damages with which I would respectfully agree, and on which I will expand later in this judgment. The first was that “the principle of compensation which pervades the law of damages for tort ought apart from statutory modification or well-established authority to be consistently and uniformly applied” (p 84). Accordingly, addressing a point on which Lord Denning MR had laid emphasis, “[t]hat the victim may not be capable of using for his personal benefit the damages awarded for loss of earnings or loss of amenity is in a real sense irrelevant” (ibid). The second, related, point addressed by Shaw LJ was whether different principles applied in relation to loss of future earnings where the victim of a tort was a young child. In relation to that question, he said (p 84): “I fail to see why there should be any difference in the principles which determine what are the bases for the recovery of damages whatever the age of the victim. The assessment of the measure of damages may be more or less difficult but the right of the plaintiff to an assessment of damages for that element of damage cannot be brushed aside. The obligation of the court to make the best assessment it can is not to be avoided by treating compensation for loss of future earnings in the case of a young child as being so speculative as not to deserve to be considered at all.” On the facts of the case, Shaw LJ agreed with Griffiths LJ that loss of lifetime earnings should be assessed on the basis that the plaintiff would have been likely to achieve average earnings. In relation to the lost years, Shaw LJ agreed with Griffiths LJ, notwithstanding the difficulty, as it seems to me, of reconciling the reasoning of Griffiths LJ with the observations of Shaw LJ which were quoted in paras 32 and 33 above. He said that he recognised the philosophical anomaly but would not seek to resolve it, being content to adopt Griffiths LJ’s exposition of the practical justification. He added that there was a high measure of artificiality in the principles which were applied to “this intractable area of compensation” (p 85). The case of Jamil Bin Harun v Yang Kamsiah Bte Meor Rasdi [1984] AC 529 was not cited to this court, but is of significance as a decision three years after Gammell in which the Privy Council, on an appeal from Malaysia, had no difficulty in accepting that an award for loss of future earnings could be made to a young child. The claimant had suffered severe brain damage when aged seven. Her life expectancy was not affected, and there was therefore no issue relating to the lost years, but she was incapable of ever working. An award in respect of loss of future earnings was upheld. The advice of the Board (Lord Keith of Kinkel, Lord Edmund-Davies, Lord Scarman, Lord Roskill and Lord Templeman) was given by Lord Scarman. He noted that the failure to call any witness as to the child’s family background or social circumstances had the inevitable result that the trial judge and, on appeal, the Federal Court had to make do with inference where they could have derived a measure of help from evidence. On the appeal to the Board, the defendant emphasised the lack of evidence and submitted that no court might rest its judgment on speculation. In that regard, reliance was placed on the dicta of Lord Wilberforce and Lord Salmon in Pickett which were cited at paras 19 and 20 above, on Gammell, and on the dissenting judgment of Lord Denning MR in Croke v Wiseman. Lord Scarman distinguished the dicta in Pickett as being concerned only with “lost years” claims. He said nothing about his own remarks in Gammell (quoted at para 24 above). He referred to the decision of the majority in Croke v Wiseman, distinguishing loss of lifetime earnings from damages for the lost years, and holding that a child’s loss of lifetime earnings was not to be treated as being so speculative that it could not be assessed. He expressed the Board’s agreement with Griffiths LJ’s statement at p 82 that, in the case of a gravely injured child, “[t]here are compelling social reasons why a sum of money should be awarded for his future loss of earnings”. Lord Scarman also referred to the earlier decision of the Court of Appeal in Joyce v Yeomans [1981] 1 WLR 549, in which an award for loss of future earning capacity was upheld in the case of a nine year old boy who had sustained a serious head injury. The decisions to make awards for loss of earnings, or loss of earning capacity, in Croke v Wiseman and Joyce v Yeomans, and in the case before the Board, were approved. Lord Scarman said (p 537): “If damages are to be a fair and adequate compensation for a plaintiff who is expected to live for many years during which time he will be unemployable or his earning capacity substantially reduced, it will be necessary to assess his future loss, difficult though the task may be in cases where the victim is a child. Though difficult, the court must do the best it can upon the evidence.” 39. In response to the submission that the court lacked an evidential basis for an award, Lord Scarman noted that there was clear evidence of the physical and mental consequences of the injury. The court below had used its knowledge of Malaysian circumstances to estimate the sort of earnings which the claimant could reasonably have expected to earn, without any special qualifications or skills. While it would have helped the court to have had evidence as to the present family and social circumstances, since it might have shown that this little girl had better prospects than average, any evidence given as to her future prospects would be as much a matter of inference and estimate as was the judgment of the court without such evidence. Lord Scarman concluded his discussion of this point (p 538): “The reality is that in most cases the court must form its estimate based upon its own knowledge of social conditions and upon evidence (which was available from the doctor and the school) of the present and past circumstances of the plaintiff.” In Iqbal v Whipps Cross University NHS Trust [2007] EWCA Civ 1190; [2008] PIQR P9 the Court of Appeal felt compelled to follow Croke v Wiseman and disallow a claim for the lost years by a young child who had been severely injured at birth. However, Gage LJ, with whom Laws LJ agreed, considered that Croke v Wiseman was not consistent with Pickett or Gammell. He also commented that he found it difficult to accept that if it was possible to assess prospective future loss of earnings for the lifetime of a young child, it was not possible to assess damages for the lost years, even allowing for the difficulty of assessing the surplus. Rimer LJ gave a judgment to similar effect, explaining that in ruling out a claim for lost years merely because of the lack of actual or potential dependants, Griffiths LJ in Croke v Wiseman had reasoned inconsistently with the speeches of the majority in Pickett. The court granted permission to appeal to the House of Lords, but the appeal was then settled. In Totham v King’s College Hospital NHS Foundation Trust [2015] EWHC 97 (QB); [2015] Med LR 55, Elisabeth Laing J was also compelled to follow Croke v Wiseman. She commented that the decision in that case was inconsistent with the principle of full compensation. She also expressed agreement with Rimer LJ in Iqbal v Whipps Cross University NHS Trust that the policy justifications referred to in Croke v Wiseman were inconsistent with Pickett and Gammell. She observed that there was no rational basis for allowing lost years claims by adults but refusing to allow them when made by children. In R v Sheffield Teaching Hospitals NHS Foundation Trust [2017] EWHC 1245 (QB); [2017] 1 WLR 4847, the claimant was severely injured during his birth, but the claim was not brought until he was an adult. The judge considered that there was a good prospect that he would enter into a relationship giving rise to dependency. In these circumstances the judge distinguished Croke v Wiseman and made an award for the lost years. The court has been referred to authorities from Australia and Canada. As mentioned earlier, the decision in Pickett was influenced by the decision of the High Court of Australia in Skelton v Collins. That court disagreed with Oliver v Ashman, taking the view that a claimant whose life expectancy had been reduced as a result of an injury suffered an immediate loss of earning capacity in respect of the lost years, for which he or she should be compensated. The loss of earning capacity has been described in the later Australian case law as the diminution in the value of a capital asset of the claimant, namely his or her capacity to earn money from the use of personal skills: see, for example, Amaca Pty Ltd v Latz [2018] HCA 22; (2018) 264 CLR 505, para 89. An example of a claim on behalf of a young child is the case of Hills v State of Queensland [2006] QSC 244, where the Australian court based its assessment of lost years damages on evidence of average earnings in an occupation which seemed appropriate in the light of the claimant’s family background. Like the High Court of Australia, the Supreme Court of Canada declined to follow the Oliver v Ashman approach: Andrews v Grand & Toy Alberta Ltd [1978] 2 SCR 229. As in Australia, it is not loss of earnings, but rather loss of earning capacity, for which compensation must be made. The approach was summarised by Dickson J in Andrews v Grand & Toy Alberta Ltd at p 251: “A capital asset has been lost: what was its value?” The later case of Toneguzzo-Norvell v Burnaby Hospital [1994] 1 SCR 114 concerned a lost years award to a child who was severely injured during her birth. The award was based on average earnings for women with the level of education which it was considered that the claimant might have had if she had not been injured, with an uplift to reflect the expectation that women’s earnings would increase as greater equality was achieved between men and women. The Supreme Court also approved of a substantial deduction for living expenses during the lost years, following the approach adopted in Australia and England. 47. This court has also been referred to a number of more recent Canadian cases, mostly at first instance, concerned with the assessment of damages for female claimants who suffered severe injuries prior to or during their birth. In these cases, Canadian judges based their awards for the lost years on average earnings for a category of occupations considered appropriate in view of the educational attainment and occupations of the claimant’s parents and siblings, and the extent to which the family was oriented towards achievement. The earnings statistics used were generally for female workers, but an uplift was made in some cases to reflect an assumption that the disparity between male and female earnings would diminish over time. In some cases, allowances were made for contingencies liable to affect female workers, such as the interruption of full-time employment in order to care for children. Conventional percentage deductions were made to allow for living expenses. See, for example, Crawford v Penney [2003] OJ No 89, Ediger v Johnston 2009 BCSC 386, and Steinebach v Fraser Health Authority 2010 BCSC 832. The decision of the majority in Croke v Wiseman that no award for the lost years should be made where the claimant was a young child was based, as explained above, on the absence of dependants. That reasoning is inconsistent both with legal principle and with the relevant authorities. There is no reason of legal principle why a claimant’s ability to obtain an award in respect of his own pecuniary losses should depend on the existence of dependants. The claim for lost years is in respect of the claimant’s own loss, not in respect of anyone else’s, and his or her right to damages is not in any way dependent on how they might be used. As Holroyd Pearce LJ said in Oliver v Ashman at p 224: “The plaintiff having made out his cause of action in negligence and proved his damages is entitled to his judgment. There is no condition that he should spend or use the damages. They are his to save or to spend or to dissipate in any useful or useless manner that he may choose. His needs or his ability to use his damages are, as it seems to me, irrelevant to their assessment.” That fundamental principle of the law of damages was recognised in Pickett, where the proposition that lost years damages were confined to claimants with dependants was expressly rejected by Lord Wilberforce at p 150 (“He may not have dependants”), Lord Salmon at p 154 (“the law can make no distinction between the plaintiff who looks after dependants and the plaintiff who does not”), Lord Edmund-Davies at p 162 (“regardless … of whether he has dependants”), and Lord Russell at p 166 (“the question of the lost years must be answered in the same way in a case of a plaintiff without dependants”). That is not to deny that a rational distinction might be drawn in cases of this kind, for reasons of social policy, between persons with dependants and persons without dependants. However, in the absence of any legal principle which could justify drawing such a distinction, doing so for reasons of social policy lies within the domain of the legislature rather than the courts. Although the reasoning in Croke v Wiseman is unsatisfactory, counsel for the respondents sought to support the decision on the basis that the assessment of damages for the lost years, where the claimant is a young child, is a matter of speculation. That was the basis of Lord Denning MR’s dissenting judgment in Croke v Wiseman, although Lord Denning extended that reasoning also to the claim for loss of lifetime earnings. 53. It is trite law that, as a general principle, the damages to be awarded for loss caused by tort are compensatory. In broad terms, and subject to any relevant limitations on recovery (for example, such as may arise in some cases from the limited scope of the duty owed, or from the need for recoverable losses not to be too remote a consequence of the tort), the claimant is entitled to be placed in the position he or she would have been in if the tort had not been committed. A classic statement of this principle is that of Lord Blackburn in Livingstone v Rawyards Coal Co (1880) 5 App Cas 25, 39: “I do not think there is any difference of opinion as to its being a general rule that, where any injury is to be compensated by damages, in settling the sum of money to be given for reparation of damages you should as nearly as possible get at that sum of money which will put the party who has been injured, or who has suffered, in the same position as he would have been in if he had not sustained the wrong for which he is now getting his compensation or reparation.” That general principle applies just as much where the claimant was injured as a young child as where the claimant was injured as an adult. The court cannot properly exclude the recovery of compensatory damages, as a matter of principle, on the ground of the claimant’s age. A precise assessment of the loss suffered is not always possible. That was recognised by Lord Blackburn in Livingstone v Rawyards Coal Co when he spoke of getting “as nearly as possible” to the sum which would restore the claimant to the same position as he would have been in if he had not sustained the wrong. Similarly, Lord Shaw of Dunfermline spoke in Watson, Laidlaw, & Co Ltd v Pott, Cassels & Williamson 1914 SC (HL) 18, 29-30 of restoration by way of compensation being “accomplished to a large extent by the exercise of a sound imagination and the practice of the broad axe”, and of the attempt of justice “to get back to the status quo ante in fact, or to reach imaginatively, by the process of compensation, a result in which the same principle is followed”. 55. When a young child suffers an injury such as that suffered in the present case, he or she suffers actionable damage there and then. The causation of damage is established beyond question. The court has then to assess an appropriate award of damages to compensate the child for the consequences of that injury. The effects of the injury on the child’s physical and mental capacities, and on his or her life expectancy, can normally be established with reasonable confidence by expert evidence. The pecuniary loss caused by the injury is more difficult to assess, because there are many more contingencies involved in the attempt to forecast the child’s likely earnings (and, in relation to the lost years, the likely living expenses) if he or she had not been injured. But that is always true of a claim based on the loss of future earnings or of earning capacity: even in the case of an adult claimant, the future is uncertain and subject to countless contingencies. Such a claim is always for the loss of something which was uncertain. Whether the claimant is an adult or a child, the uncertainty is taken into account in the court’s assessment. That assessment must, of course, be based on evidence or, to the extent that it is legitimate, judicial knowledge (as was held in Jamil Bin Harun v Yang Kamsiah). But the law does not insist on proof that events would in fact have taken a particular course. 56. Difficulty of assessment is no reason for awarding no damages or merely nominal damages. As Bowen LJ said in Ratcliffe v Evans [1892] 2 QB 524, 532-533: “In all actions accordingly on the case where the damage actually done is the gist of the action, the character of the acts themselves which produce the damage, and the circumstances under which these acts are done, must regulate the degree of certainty and particularity with which the damage done ought to be stated and proved. As much certainty and particularity must be insisted on, both in pleading and proof of damage, as is reasonable, having regard to the circumstances and to the nature of the acts themselves by which the damage is done. To insist upon less would be to relax old and intelligible principles. To insist upon more would be the vainest pedantry.” That principle was reaffirmed more recently in One Step (Support) Ltd v Morris-Garner [2018] UKSC 20; [2019] AC 649, para 38: “Evidential difficulties in establishing the measure of loss are reflected in the degree of certainty with which the law requires damages to be proved”. Accordingly, where it is clear that the claimant has suffered substantial loss – as the injured child undoubtedly has – but the evidence does not enable it to be precisely quantified, the court must assess damages as best it can on such evidence as is reasonably available. It has to do so, notwithstanding that the loss cannot be measured precisely or with certainty, if the compensatory principle is to be honoured. For these reasons, the views expressed, obiter, in Pickett and Gammell that an award for the lost years cannot be made in the case of a child, because it is too speculative (except in special circumstances, such as those of a child actor), are inconsistent with the general compensatory principle. For the same reasons, the approach adopted by Lord Denning MR in Croke v Wiseman to claims for lost lifetime earnings, and pecuniary losses during the lost years, brought by claimants who have been injured as children, cannot be accepted. It contradicts the principles which I have described to refuse on principle to make any award of damages to a claimant injured as a child, either in respect of lifetime earnings or in respect of the lost years. The evidential difficulties caused by the defendant, in inflicting a severe injury on a young child, should not be allowed to deprive the child of just compensation. The court has to assess damages as best it can on the available evidence. In that regard, it is significant that developments in the assessment of damages since Pickett and Gammell have reduced the difficulties of assessment of lost years claims by children. One relevant development has been the use of actuarial tables, of increasing sophistication, since Wells v Wells [1999] 1 AC 345. Although the utility of that approach is inherently limited, as actuarial evidence speaks in terms of group experience and cannot speak as to the individual claimant, nevertheless it has reduced the difficulty of determining an appropriate multiplier where a loss will be sustained in the distant future. 60. Another important development, illustrated by Croke v Wiseman itself, has been the use of statistical evidence of average earnings as a guide to what a child might have gone on to earn if he or she had not been injured and had enjoyed a normal life expectancy and normal capabilities. This kind of evidence has also become more sophisticated over time. Since Croke v Wiseman, it has become common for evidence to be led, as in the Australian and Canadian cases, bearing more directly on the situation of the particular claimant. It may include evidence about the educational achievements, occupations and attitudes of the claimant’s parents and siblings, and evidence about the average earnings of a suitably tailored category of individuals. This approach is not open to the same objection as the approach adopted in Connolly v Camden and Islington Health Authority, where the court was prepared to countenance making awards for the lost years to the sons of businessmen and farmers, on the assumption that they would inherit the position and earnings of their fathers, but not to the claimant son of a plasterer. Evidence about a range of likely outcomes, based on family circumstances and attitudes, is not mere prejudice or stereotyping. Such evidence is likely to assist the court in making the best assessment it can of the loss suffered by the particular individual who has brought the claim. In short, the techniques of assessment have moved on considerably since Pickett and Gammell, and even since Croke v Wiseman and Jamil Bin Harun v Yang Kamsiah. In the present case, for example, the evidence available, including evidence about the claimant’s family background, has enabled the parties to reach agreement, as explained earlier, about the educational qualifications which she would have obtained but for her injuries, the type of employment which she would have entered after completing her education, the age at which she would have retired, and the fact that she would have received a pension from the date of her retirement until the date of her death. The parties’ agreement also extends to the claimant’s loss of lifetime earnings, based on evidence of average earnings of women in the range of employments which was considered appropriate in the light of the claimant’s family circumstances. Counsel for the respondents submitted that awards for the lost years in the case of child claimants involved a greater degree of speculation than awards for loss of lifetime earnings because of the need to estimate the claimant’s probable living expenses. That argument is unpersuasive. Once the probable income has been assessed, the appropriate deduction to make in respect of living expenses need not present any greater difficulties in the case of a claimant who is a child than in the case of an adult. In practice, in cases brought by adults, a conventional percentage is generally applied to the net earnings on a rough and ready basis. There is no reason why a similar approach cannot be applied in cases brought by children, as is the practice in other jurisdictions. Finally, one might observe that the attempt to exclude claims for the lost years where they are brought by young children invites the question where the line is to be drawn. In reality, because the distinction sought to be drawn between claims by young children and claims by older children or adults has no basis in legal principle, the court cannot draw a line. Whatever the age of the claimant, it has to assess just compensation as best it can on the material which is reasonably available. For these reasons, I consider that the decision to refuse to award damages for the lost years in Croke v Wiseman was incorrect and should be overruled. The present appeal should be allowed, and the case remitted to the trial judge in order for damages for the claimant’s lost years to be assessed. LORD BURROWS (concurring) I agree with Lord Reed that Croke v Wiseman [1982] 1 WLR 71 (“Croke”) should be overruled, and that this appeal should be allowed and the case remitted to the trial judge. This judgment, which was written before I had read the judgment of Lord Reed, sets out my own reasoning in coming to that conclusion. It can be seen that Lord Reed’s and my essential reasoning are similar. 66. This case concerns damages for the “lost years” consequent on an actionable personal injury. “Lost years damages” may be awarded where the injury has reduced the claimant’s expectation of life. They are awarded for the pecuniary loss (loss of earnings, and loss of pension, minus living expenses) that the claimant is regarded as suffering by reason of his or her shortened life expectancy. It was accepted by the House of Lords in Pickett v British Rail Engineering Ltd [1980] AC 136 (“Pickett”), where the claimant was a 53-year-old man with a reduced life expectancy of one year, that damages for the lost years are recoverable in English law. The Court of Appeal’s earlier decision to the contrary in Oliver v Ashman [1962] 2 QB 210 was overruled. Pickett was confirmed by the House of Lords in Gammell v Wilson [1982] AC 27 (“Gammell”) where the lost years claim was held to survive for the benefit of the injured person’s estate in an action brought under the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1934 (“the 1934 Act”) (although that decision, on survival of the lost years claim, has subsequently been legislatively reversed). Since Pickett, lost years awards have become commonplace. However, there is one area where lost years awards have not been made. This is where the injured claimant is a young child. No lost years damages have been awarded to a young child following the decision of the Court of Appeal in Croke, where, at trial, the injured claimant was a seven-year-old with a reduced life expectancy of 40. In this case, the claimant was injured at birth. She was aged eight at trial and, as a result of her injuries, has a reduced life expectancy of 29. This is a leapfrog appeal, direct to the Supreme Court from the High Court. This course has been taken because counsel for the appellant, Richard Baker KC, has accepted that Croke would be binding before the Court of Appeal but submits that that decision is inconsistent with the law on lost years laid down by the House of Lords in Pickett and Gammell and should therefore be overruled by the Supreme Court. It should be made clear at the outset that we have not been asked by counsel for the respondent, Paul Rees KC, to overrule Pickett or to restate the law on lost years laid down in Pickett. Rather, Mr Rees submits that the present law on lost years damages should continue as is, namely that lost years awards can be made except to young children; and that that exception is justified because the assessment of the lost years award in the case of a young child is entirely speculative. The structure of this judgment begins with a brief examination of the facts before turning to consider the relevant law, which requires a close analysis of a number of cases. The claimant (who is the appellant) is a young girl. By her mother (acting as her litigation friend) she has sued the defendant for damages for the tort of negligence that caused her severe spastic cerebral palsy. The defendant (who is the respondent) runs the Royal Hallamshire Hospital in Sheffield and has admitted that it was negligent in failing to prevent the claimant suffering a hypoxic brain injury, at the time of her birth on 6 February 2015, which resulted in the cerebral palsy. On 14 August 2020, judgment on liability was entered for the claimant with damages to be assessed. The claimant is affected by pain and spasms, profound learning difficulties, severe visual impairment, respiratory impairment and epilepsy. It was common ground that her injuries would greatly impair her life expectancy. Shortly before the trial on quantum, the parties agreed a life expectancy to age 29 and this was accepted by the judge, Ritchie J: see his judgment, dated 12 July 2023, [2023] EWHC 1770, at para 171. The claimant is entirely dependent upon her family and a team of professional carers for care and support. At para 8 of his judgment, Ritchie J paid tribute to her mother for her hugely impressive devotion and determination to make the claimant’s life as full and enjoyable as possible. I would like to echo that tribute. Until the claimant’s birth, her mother worked full-time as a beautician. There was no evidence at the trial regarding her father’s working history; the relationship broke down after the claimant’s birth and he has no contact with the claimant or her mother. In her first witness statement, dated 27 September 2021, the mother confirmed that she would have encouraged the claimant to go to university. There was also witness statement evidence that the claimant’s older brother (then aged 16) was doing well academically, planned to remain in the sixth form at school and hoped to read law at university; and that the mother came from a very hard-working family background. The mother’s sisters worked full-time as, respectively, a senior procurement specialist and a staff nurse. The evidence as to the mother’s own previous work history and attitude to work, the educational progress of the claimant’s brother and the family’s employment history was not challenged. There was no suggestion from either party that the claimant would, in her injured state, have any dependants. As is set out in the agreed statement of facts for this appeal, the parties agreed that, had the claimant not sustained injury, she would have had a normal life expectancy and was likely to have worked to the statutory retirement age and would have received some sort of pension for the remainder of her life thereafter. It was also agreed between the parties that she was likely to have gained GCSEs and higher qualifications from college or university leading to paid employment. The award for future loss of earnings was agreed at £160,000 until age 29 and approved by Ritchie J: see his judgment at para 171. He explained that the basis for that award was that, uninjured, the claimant would have gone to college and entered the workplace in a similar line of work to her aunts or mother. The claimant also sought lost years damages in the amount of £823,506. This was set out in the claimant’s schedule of loss. That total figure was calculated by adding the claimant’s estimated earnings of £34,262 net per annum until normal retirement age to £17,500 net per annum for loss of pension during retirement. A 50% reduction was then applied in the claimant’s schedule of loss as the deduction for the claimant’s living expenses in the lost years. The defendant does not accept that, even if lost years damages can here be awarded (which it disputes), the claimant’s assessment is correct; and Ritchie J, in his leap-frog judgment [2023] EWHC 1905; [2024] 1 WLR 1307, at para 45, said that the actual value of the lost years award would be “substantially lower” than the sum claimed. Both parties agreed that the trial judge was bound by the decision of the Court of Appeal in Croke so that no award for the lost years could be made in this case where the severely injured claimant was a young child. Ritchie J did not assess what, if any, damages he would have awarded for the lost years had he not been bound by Croke. Overall, Ritchie J awarded the claimant a lump sum of £6,866,615 and periodical payments of £394,940 per annum. On 24 July 2023, Ritchie J granted a leap-frog certificate pursuant to section 12(1) of the Administration of Justice Act 1969, on the issue of whether the claimant, as a child aged eight at trial, could be awarded lost years damages. Permission for the leap-frog appeal was given by the Supreme Court on 8 January 2024. Prior to the decision of the Court of Appeal in Oliver v Ashman, there had been conflicting first instance decisions as to whether lost years damages could be awarded to any claimant. These included Harris v Brights Asphalt Contractors Ltd [1953] 1 QB 617 (Slade J) denying that there could be such an award; and Pope v D Murphy & Son Ltd [1961] 1 QB 222 (Streatfeild J) accepting that there could be such an award and, on the facts, making such an award. 82. In Oliver v Ashman, the claimant was aged four at the time of the trial. He had been badly injured in a road accident at the age of 20 months. He suffered a serious brain injury and would require constant care for the rest of his life. His expectation of life was reduced from about 60 years to about 30 years. At first instance, Lord Parker CJ, following Pope v D Murphy & Son Ltd, had included lost years damages within the award. But the Court of Appeal (Holroyd Pearce, Willmer and Pearson LJJ), while upholding the sum of damages awarded as being not too high overall, decided that no damages should have been awarded for the lost years. The essential reasoning was that to award damages for the lost years as a pecuniary loss was inconsistent with the decision in Benham v Gambling [1941] AC 157. The House of Lords had there awarded damages for loss of expectation of life and that decision was interpreted as precluding any additional sum for the lost years. Lost years damages were also regarded by the Court of Appeal as being objectionable in principle not least because the injured claimant would not be alive to incur the loss of earnings. Given the issue that we have to decide, it is noteworthy that, in Oliver v Ashman, the young age of the claimant did not appear to feature as a relevant factor in the reasoning denying the claimant lost years damages; and, indeed, a lost years award had been made by Lord Parker CJ at first instance. Mr Pickett contracted mesothelioma caused by exposure to asbestos dust during the course of his work. His employer admitted liability but disputed quantum. Mr Pickett was 53 years old at the date of trial and married with two children. His life expectancy had been reduced to one year. He obtained judgment but without any lost years damages being awarded. Before an appeal, including on the question of the lost years damages, he died. Mr Pickett’s widow carried on the appeal proceedings in her capacity as administratrix of his estate. In line with Oliver v Ashman, the Court of Appeal refused to award any lost years damages. 85. The House of Lords (Lord Russell dissenting) allowed Mrs Pickett’s appeal on the lost years issue and overruled Oliver v Ashman. Lost years damages, calculated by assessing the injured claimant’s loss of earnings during the lost years minus his living expenses, should have been awarded. The case was therefore remitted to the High Court for that element of the damages to be assessed. It was held that the Court of Appeal in Oliver v Ashman had misinterpreted Benham v Gambling because the award for loss of expectation of life had been a conventional sum for non-pecuniary loss and was therefore not inconsistent with a lost years award which compensated pecuniary loss. In any event, a lost years award was held to be justified in principle as a loss suffered by the living claimant. Support was drawn from the High Court of Australia’s decision in Skelton v Collins (1966) 115 CLR 94 in which Windeyer J, at p 129, had explained that the relevant loss was the destruction or diminution of the claimant’s earning capacity including for the period of expected life cut short by the tort. 86. There are passages in the speeches of Lord Wilberforce and Lord Salmon in Pickett which indicate that their Lordships were particularly concerned with the potential injustice to the dependants of the deceased if lost years damages were to be denied. On the facts, Mr Pickett had a wife who was financially dependent on him (as to some extent may have been his two adult children). Had he already died from the tortiously inflicted mesothelioma before his action had proceeded to judgment, his dependants would have had a claim for their financial loss of dependency caused by his wrongful death under the Fatal Accidents Act 1976 (“the 1976 Act”). That is, they would have been entitled to recover for their pecuniary loss (Mr Pickett’s loss of earnings minus his living expenses) consequent on his death. But, as Mr Pickett had brought a claim for his personal injury which had proceeded to judgment prior to his death, no claim could be brought by his dependants for his death under the 1976 Act. This was because it was assumed that the correct interpretation of the wording of section 1(1) of the 1976 Act ruled that out: ie the judgment or a settlement would mean that the wrongfully caused death would not be “such as would (if death had not ensued) have entitled the person injured to maintain an action and recover damages in respect [of the death]”. It followed that, unless Mr Pickett could recover lost years damages, his dependants would stand to lose out if he died, as a result of the tort, after judgment or settlement. Viewed in this way, one might say that the recognition of the availability of lost years damages was driven by a policy concern to ensure that dependants were compensated for their loss. Lord Wilberforce said the following at p 146: “The Fatal Accidents Acts [allow] proceedings [to] be brought for the benefit of dependants to recover the loss caused to those dependants by the death of the breadwinner. The amount of this loss is related to the probable future earnings which would have been made by the deceased during ‘lost years.’ This creates a difficulty. It is assumed in the present case, and the assumption is supported by authority, that if an action for damages is brought by the victim during his lifetime, and either proceeds to judgment or is settled, further proceedings cannot be brought after his death under the Fatal Accidents Acts. If this assumption is correct, it provides a basis, in logic and justice, for allowing the victim to recover for earnings lost during his lost years.” Making the same point, Lord Salmon said at p 152 that, because of the assumption as to the barring of the 1976 Act claim: “It follows that it would be grossly unjust to the plaintiff and his dependants were the law to deprive him from recovering any damages for the loss of remuneration which the defendant's negligence has prevented him from earning during the ‘lost years’.” However, while that may have been the driving policy, it is clear and very important to appreciate that, in terms of the law laid down, the House of Lords did not restrict lost years damages to situations where the injured claimant has, or will have, dependants. To the contrary, four of the five Law Lords expressly rejected the proposition that lost years damages were so restricted. 90. “The respondent, in an impressive argument, urged upon us that the real loss in such cases as the present was to the victim's dependants and that the right way in which to compensate them was to change the law (by statute, judicially it would be impossible) so as to enable the dependants to recover their loss independently of any action by the victim. There is much force in this, and no doubt the law could be changed in this way. But I think that the argument fails because it does not take account, as in an action for damages account must be taken, of the interest of the victim. Future earnings are of value to him in order that he may satisfy legitimate desires, but these may not correspond with the allocation which the law makes of money recovered by dependants on account of his loss. He may wish to benefit some dependants more than, or to the exclusion of, others - this (subject to family inheritance legislation) he is entitled to do. He may not have dependants, but he may have others, or causes, whom he would wish to benefit, for whom he might even regard himself as working. One cannot make a distinction, for the purposes of assessing damages, between men in different family situations.” “Certainly, the law can make no distinction between the plaintiff who looks after dependants and the plaintiff who does not, in assessing the damages recoverable to compensate the plaintiff for the money he would have earned during the ‘lost years’ but for the defendant's negligence. On his death those damages will pass to whomsoever benefits under his will or upon an intestacy.” “I prefer not to complicate the problem by considering the impact upon dependants of an award to a living plaintiff whose life has been shortened, as to which see section 1 (1) of the Fatal Accidents Act 1976 … For our present consideration relates solely to the personal entitlement of an injured party to recover damages for the ‘lost years’, regardless both of whether he has dependants and of whether or not he would (if he has any) make provision for them out of any compensation awarded to him or his estate.” The dissenting judge, Lord Russell, was also clear and succinct on this point. He said at p 166: “It has, my Lords, correctly been remarked that though in the instant case the plaintiff had dependants who (it was assumed) were barred from a Fatal Accidents Act claim by the judgment, the question of the lost years must be answered in the same way in a case of a plaintiff without dependants.” What, if anything, did their Lordships say about the availability of lost years damages for young children? With the exception of Lord Wilberforce at p 150 (who seemed to suggest, on the face of it erroneously, that, in the case of a young child, no damages for loss of earnings could be awarded even for the claimant’s lifetime let alone for the lost years), their Lordships were not saying that, as a matter of law, there could be no lost years award to a young child. Rather on the best interpretation (although this is not entirely clear) all would depend on the normal need to prove loss and, on the particular facts, an award for the lost years could be made to a young child albeit that it would be likely to be minimal. 96. “The amount awarded [for the lost years] will depend upon the facts of each particular case. They may vary greatly from case to case. At one end of the scale, the claim may be made on behalf of a young child or his estate. In such a case, the lost earnings are so unpredictable and speculative that only a minimal sum could properly be awarded. At the other end of the scale, the claim may be made by a man in the prime of life or, if he dies, on behalf of his estate; if he has been in good employment for years with every prospect of continuing to earn a good living until he reaches the age of retirement, after all the relevant factors have been taken into account, the damages recoverable from the defendant are likely to be substantial. The amount will, of course, vary, sometimes greatly, according to the particular facts of the case under consideration.” Similarly, Lord Scarman appeared to accept that there could be a lost years award to a young child but that, whether there would be such an award and its amount, would depend on the normal need to prove loss. After referring to the objection being put that, in the case of a young child, “it is absurd that he should be compensated for future loss of earnings” (p 169), Lord Scarman’s response was as follows at p 170: “[That] .. objection will be taken care of in the ordinary course of litigation: a measurable and not too remote loss has to be proved before it can enter into the assessment of damages.” In Gammell, a boy aged 15 and a young man aged 22 were killed in a road accident and a work accident respectively. Actions were brought by the father and the parents respectively both on behalf of the estates of the deceased under the 1934 Act and as dependants under the 1976 Act. The main question for the House of Lords was whether the lost years damages claim, accepted in Pickett, survived for the benefit of the estate in a claim under the 1934 Act. It was held that it did so survive. On the facts, this meant that the damages under the 1934 Act exceeded those under the 1976 Act. Therefore, applying the established law on the deduction under a 1976 Act claim of overlapping damages under a 1934 Act claim (see, eg, Murray v Shuter [1976] QB 972), no damages were here recoverable under the 1976 Act. Of direct relevance to what we have to decide is that their Lordships upheld the award for the lost years that had been made at first instance. This was so despite the deceased in the first case being aged 15 when he was killed (although he had started working at the age of 14). Despite grave concerns about the degree of speculation involved, their Lordships, as in Pickett, are best interpreted as having regarded the availability and assessment of lost years damages as turning on the evidence and the normal need to prove loss. Lord Edmund-Davies at p 71, in upholding the awards made, counselled “moderation in assessing such claims so as to reflect the high degree of speculation inevitably involved”. “The process of assessing damages in such cases [young men with no established earning capacity or settled pattern of life] is so extremely uncertain that it can hardly be dignified with the name of calculation; it is little more than speculation. Yet that is the process which the courts are obliged to carry out at present.” Most important of all, because he alone referred to the case of a young child, was Lord Scarman. At p 78 he said: “In the case of a young child, the lost years of earning capacity will ordinarily be so distant that assessment is mere speculation. No estimate being possible, no award—not even a ‘conventional’ award—should ordinarily be made. Even so, there will be exceptions: a child television star, cut short in her prime at the age of five, might have a claim: it would depend on the evidence.” (Emphasis added.) It is important to add that none of their Lordships attached any significance to whether or not, for the purposes of the lost years award, the deceased did, or did not, have dependants. The actual decision in Gammell was legislatively overturned by the Administration of Justice Act 1982. By section 4(2) of that Act, amending section 1(2) of the 1934 Act, the damages recoverable by the estate of the injured person shall not include “any damages for loss of income in respect of any period after that person’s death”. The particular problem following Gammell was that, where those taking under the estate and the dependants were different (they were the same on the facts of Gammell), a defendant might have to pay out very substantial damages under both the 1934 Act (for the lost years) and the 1976 Act (for the financial dependency). In other words, there could be significant double liability. It was to overcome that problem that, by reason of the legislative reform, a lost years claim no longer survives for the benefit of the estate under the 1934 Act. Although Connolly was a first instance decision, Comyn J’s judgment merits careful attention because he was faced, pre-Croke and only a few months after Gammell, with many of the same issues in interpreting Pickett and Gammell that we have to confront in this appeal. The claimant, who at trial was four years old, had been brain damaged shortly after birth by being negligently given an overdose of anaesthetic. His life expectancy had been reduced to 27.5 years. One of the main questions was whether he was entitled to lost years damages. 108. Comyn J explained that he had read and reread Pickett and Gammell and, having cited a passage from Lord Scarman in Gammell, he went on to say at p 256: “What am I to deduce from these cases in regard to a child of, to take the present case, nearly five? Is it being said by their Lordships as a matter of law binding on me that there is no claim possible in respect of such a child except in purely exceptional circumstances, such as I would call, perhaps somewhat old-fashionedly, the Shirley Temple type of case? I do not think that can be so. Other courts in this building deal with children up to the age of 16, sometimes to 18 and exceptionally beyond. I do not think, with respect, that any hard and fast rule can be laid down, and I think a child qualifies as such under this head of damage dependent on the ability to prove. It is difficult enough in the case of a teenager or a middle-aged person to prove something for lost years. It is more difficult for a child, but I can envisage, with respect, far more examples than the Shirley Temple case or that of a television star. I can envisage the only son of a father who owns a prosperous business. I can envisage the son who is born to a farmer who is able to leave the estate to the son. I can envisage a number of situations where the court can look at something and find that there are lost years to be compensated for. It is not my intention in this judgment to seek to contribute to the wealth of learning on this subject or to turn my judgment into a sort of Law Quarterly Review article on this subject. But what I hold, and hold clearly, is that Pickett v British Rail Engineering Ltd and Gammell v Wilson give this little boy a head of claim for lost years, but on the material before me I am going to follow precisely the way counsel for the health authority put it, which I believe expressly states the law, not that there is no claim but that there is a claim but I assess it at nil.” (Emphasis added). Comyn J’s analysis of Pickett and Gammell is, in my view, compelling and is entirely consistent with what I have said above about those cases. Having said that, it was infelicitous to express his conclusion that there was a claim on the facts but “I assess it at nil.” That conclusion would have been better expressed by saying, simply, that, on the facts and evidence, the claimant had failed to prove any loss during the lost years. Looked at in the light of the more sophisticated approach to proof of loss taken today (see para 121 below) that seems controversial. But the important point was that Comyn J was, in my view, correct that Pickett and Gammell did not lay down a rule that, as a matter of law, young children cannot be awarded lost years damages. Rather such an award can be made depending on the evidence and the application of the normal principles and practice on proof of loss. So we come to Croke. This is the Court of Appeal decision that we are asked by the appellant to overrule as being inconsistent with Pickett and Gammell. The claimant was a seven-year-old boy at trial. When he was 21 months old, he had suffered a severe brain injury caused by medical negligence. He had a reduced life expectancy to age 40. He had, and would have, no dependants. The trial judge, Michael Davies J, had awarded him £45,000 for loss of future earnings (and it would appear – although there is no full report of his judgment – that none of that sum was for the lost years). The defendant appealed on the grounds that various aspects of the award, including that for loss of future earnings, were too high. The majority of the Court of Appeal (Griffiths and Shaw LJJ) reduced the judge’s assessment of loss of future earnings from £45,000 to £25,000. Lord Denning, dissenting, held that no damages should be awarded for loss of future earnings, whether within the claimant’s expected lifetime or in the lost years, because they would serve no purpose and were too speculative. 113. As regards whether there should have been any award of lost years damages, Griffiths LJ’s essential reasoning (and Shaw LJ was content to agree with him) was that, as a matter of law, lost years damages should not be awarded to a young child where there are no dependants and, because of the nature of the injury, there never will be any dependants. Griffiths LJ said the following at p 82: “In the case of a living plaintiff of mature years whose life expectation has been shortened and who has dependants, there are compelling social reasons for awarding a sum of money that he knows will be available for the support of his dependants after his death. It was this consideration that led to the result in Pickett's case. As a consequence of the decision in Pickett's case, the House of Lords in Gammell's case felt compelled to apply the same principle to a claim brought on behalf of the estate of the deceased person. If it could be shown that part of the deceased's income was available to be spent on his dependants, then a claim for that part of the income was available to cover the lost years of working life. In the case of a child, however, there are no dependants, and if a child is dead there can never be any dependants and, if the injuries are catastrophic, equally there will never be any dependants. It is the child that will be dependent. In such circumstances, it seems to me entirely right that the court should refuse to speculate as to whether in the future there might have been dependants for the purpose of providing a fund of money for persons who will in fact never exist.” In the light of what has been said above, Griffiths LJ’s approach clashed with Pickett and Gammell because those cases did not require there to be dependants for an award of lost years damages. While that may have been the driving policy force for allowing an award of lost years damages, it was made clear in Pickett that the presence or real prospect of dependants was not a necessary condition for the award of lost years damages. More specifically, Pickett and Gammell did not lay down a rule of law barring lost years claims by young children who do not have and will not have dependants. The approach in Pickett and Gammell was that the availability and assessment of lost years damages turns on the normal need to prove loss. Croke was therefore inconsistent with Pickett and Gammell. Before moving on to consider the case law subsequent to Croke, it may be helpful at this stage, given its central importance, to examine how pecuniary loss is proved in the context of personal injury claims. What are the relevant normal principles and practice on proof of loss? That is, how does a claimant prove his or her pecuniary loss consequent on an actionable personal injury? At a high level of generality, it is clear that the courts do not apply a balance of probabilities approach to proof of such loss. Rather the loss is assessed proportionate to the chances. The difficulty of assessment is not itself a bar to recovery but there is a de minimis cut-off where the loss claimed is on the facts merely fanciful or entirely speculative. See generally, eg, Davies v Taylor [1974] AC 207 (a fatal accident case), especially at p 212 per Lord Reid, at p 219 per Viscount Dilhorne, and at p 220 per Lord Simon of Glaisdale; and Clerk and Lindsell on Torts, 24th ed (2023), paras 26-13 – 26-14. In practice, at a granular level, the calculation of damages for future pecuniary loss in personal injury cases is normally carried out through the so-called “multiplier” method. An assessment is made of the net annual loss, which is known as the “multiplicand”. The multiplicand is then multiplied by the appropriate “multiplier”. The calculation of the multiplier begins with the number of years during which the relevant loss is likely to endure. There is then an adjustment (generally using the “discount rate” set by the Lord Chancellor as provided for in the Damages Act 1996, as amended by the Civil Liability Act 2018) to take account of the fact that the claimant receives a lump sum which can be invested. There may then be a further reduction for the “contingencies of life” other than mortality (for example, that the claimant might in any event have been unemployed or sick). Very importantly, the House of Lords in Wells v Wells [1999] 1 AC 345, which of course was many years after Croke, laid down that it is appropriate in working out the correct multiplier to make use of the actuarial “Ogden Tables”. Some 15 years earlier, Oliver LJ had famously said in Auty v National Coal Board [1985] 1 WLR 784, 800-801, that in this context: “the predictions of an actuary can be only a little more likely to be accurate (and will almost certainly be less entertaining) than those of an astrologer.” 120. In 1982 a joint working party of lawyers and actuaries was set up, under the chairmanship of Sir Michael Ogden QC, to produce tables specifically geared to the assessment of damages for future pecuniary loss in personal injury and death actions. The eighth edition of the Ogden Tables (“Actuarial Tables for Use in Personal Injury and Fatal Accident Cases”) was published in 2020 (and updated in 2022). The Ogden Tables give actuarially accurate multipliers, applying various discount rates, according to the age of the claimant at the date of the trial. The acceptance of the Ogden Tables was spelt out by Lord Lloyd in Wells v Wells at p 379. He said: “I do not suggest that the judge should be a slave to the tables. There may well be special factors in particular cases. But the tables should now be regarded as the starting-point, rather than a check. A judge should be slow to depart from the relevant actuarial multiplier on impressionistic grounds, or by reference to ‘a spread of multipliers in comparable cases’ especially when the multipliers were fixed before actuarial tables were widely used.” Clearly, the practice on proof of loss has developed. It is much more sophisticated than it was at the time of Pickett, Gammell and Croke. The use of actuarial evidence is standard practice which means that awards based on averages, as the best starting approach, is now accepted and applied on a daily basis in the assessment of damages for personal injury. 122. Finally, it should be noted that a multiplier approach is not always used for calculating future pecuniary loss. For example, “Smith v Manchester awards” (named after the leading case, Smith v Manchester Corporation (1974) 17 KIR 1, and compensating for a handicap in the labour market) are normally assessed in a broad-brush way, awarding directly a lump sum, without first trying to fix a multiplier and multiplicand. Another well-known example is Blamire v South Cumbria Health Authority [1993] PIQR Q1 where the Court of Appeal held that there were so many imponderables that the judge had been entitled not to apply the conventional multiplier approach in assessing the claimant’s future pecuniary loss and instead to apply a broad-brush approach. That a court is entitled to decide that it has no real alternative to applying such a broad-brush approach, even after Wells v Wells and even outside the context of compensating for a handicap in the labour market, is shown by, for example, Ward v Allies & Morrison Architects [2012] EWCA Civ 1287; [2013] PIQR Q1 and Irani v Duchon [2019] EWCA Civ 1846; [2020] PIQR P4, in which Blamire was followed. In the latter case, at para 22, a test of “no real alternative [to a broad-brush approach]” was approved (derived from what Keene LJ had earlier said in Bullock v Atlas Ward Structures Ltd [2008] EWCA Civ 194, at para 21). See generally McGregor on Damages, 22nd ed (2024), paras 41-071 – 41-073. There are four particular relevant features of the case law subsequent to Croke. First, the courts have expressed dissatisfaction with the decision in Croke but, by reason of the doctrine of precedent, have considered themselves bound to apply it to deny lost years damages to young children. Second, there have been cases in which lost years awards have been made to adolescents. Third, there has been a decision awarding lost years damages because, although the claimant suffered a brain injury at birth, at the time of trial he was 24. Fourth, the courts have clarified how one calculates the deduction for living expenses in the lost years. It is clear that the deduction of living expenses is calculated differently as between a claim for lost years damages and a dependency claim under the 1976 Act. The leading case here is the Court of Appeal’s decision in Iqbal v Whipps Cross University Hospital NHS Trust [2007] EWCA Civ 1190; [2008] PIQR P9 (“Iqbal”). The claimant was aged nine at the date of trial. He suffered from cerebral palsy caused by the defendant’s negligence at the time of his birth. His agreed life expectancy was to age 41. The Court of Appeal (Laws, Gage and Rimer LJJ) held, overturning the decision at first instance, that no lost years damages could here be awarded because of the decision in Croke. But Gage LJ (with whom Laws LJ agreed) and Rimer LJ made clear that they considered Croke to be inconsistent with Pickett and Gammell. In a penetrating analysis, Gage LJ said the following at para 35: “In my judgment, Gammell makes quite clear, what might be said to be less clear from Pickett, that the age of a victim is not as a matter of principle relevant to the issue of whether or not a claim can be made for the lost years. Further, the lack of dependants cannot be a factor which defeats a claim for damages for loss of earnings in the lost years. When it comes to the assessment of damages for the lost years the issues are evidential and not matters of principle.” 126. Turning to Croke, he said this at paras 45 and 46: “In my view, it is clear that Griffiths LJ regarded the absence of the prospective existence of dependants in the case of a young child as fatal to a claim for damages for loss of earnings in the lost years. Accordingly, it seems to me that this must be interpreted as a holding of principle and not a matter of evidence to be considered when assessing such damages. Having reached the above conclusion … in my opinion the decision in Croke v Wiseman is not consistent with the decisions of the House of Lords in Pickett and Gammell. I would add that I find it difficult to accept that if it is possible to assess prospective future loss of earnings for the lifetime of a young child, even allowing for the difficulty of assessing the surplus, it is not possible to assess damages for the lost years.” Having concluded that the doctrine of precedent meant that he was bound by Croke, Gage LJ concluded at para 64 by saying “the error, if error it be, must be corrected by the House of Lords.” Similarly, Rimer LJ stressed that the decision in Croke was inconsistent with Pickett and Gammell but that precedent required Croke to be applied and that it was a matter for the House of Lords whether any error should be corrected. Subsequent to Croke, lost years awards have been made to adolescents in a number of cases. These include Wooding v Torbay DC [1992] CLY 1558, where lost years damages were awarded to a 16-year-old boy subject to a discount of 75% for living expenses; and Eagle v Chambers [2003] EWHC 3135 (QB), where lost years damages were awarded to a female claimant, aged 17 at the time of the accident, subject to a discount of 50% for living expenses. It should also be recalled that in Gammell itself the lost years award, albeit made to the estate, was in respect of a 15-year-old. The striking feature of this case is that, while by reason of the defendant’s medical negligence at birth the claimant suffered a brain injury causing cerebral palsy, he waited over 20 years – but within three years of his being 18 and therefore within the limitation period – to commence his claim. William Davis J awarded him lost years damages because, while considering himself bound by Croke, he was able to distinguish that decision and to apply Pickett because the claimant at trial was aged 24. That meant that far less speculation as to his lost years was needed than if the claim had been brought when he was still a young child. Moreover, although the judge accepted that this was irrelevant applying Pickett, in contrast to Croke, there was a good prospect that the claimant would have dependants. 132. Mr Baker, for the appellant in the case before us, submitted that William Davis J’s judgment illustrates how anomalous Croke is because, had the claim for the lost years damages been brought when the claimant was a young child, it could not have succeeded. There is force in that submission. But it should be noted that, as William Davis J made clear, there is no question in this type of case of claimants being encouraged to delay the commencement of proceedings in order to recover lost years damages. As he said at para 34: “For over 20 years R's parents struggled to look after him in inadequate accommodation without any real assistance. Their efforts are hugely to be commended. However, I have no doubt that they would have preferred the kind of assistance which now is forthcoming as a result of these proceedings and the defendant's admission of liability. The same must apply to any parents in their position. No-one in their position would delay issuing proceedings to allow their child to reach adulthood to permit a ‘lost years’ claim of relatively modest proportions.” 133. It was laid down in Pickett that the lost years award would involve calculating the estimated loss of earnings during the lost years and then deducting the estimated living expenses of the claimant. There were initial doubts as to how the deductible living expenses in the lost years were to be calculated. In some first instance decisions (eg Benson v Biggs Wall & Co Ltd [1983] 1 WLR 72; Clay v Pooler [1982] 3 All ER 570) it was held that the same approach should be adopted as where calculating damages under the 1976 Act: ie the living expenses are what the claimant would have spent exclusively on himself or herself (the theory being that the dependants would have benefited from the rest of the claimant’s money). But that approach was inconsistent with the reasoning in Pickett that the lost years award was not to compensate dependants. Those decisions were therefore overruled in Harris v Empress Motors Ltd [1983] 1 WLR 65 where the Court of Appeal considered that, as regards lost years damages, one should deduct as living expenses what the claimant would have spent in maintaining himself at the standard of living appropriate to his case (the theory being that he would have the rest of his income free to spend as he wished). In contrast to an assessment under the 1976 Act, a pro rata amount of his family expenditure, eg expenditure on housing, heat, and light, should therefore be deducted. It follows that the deduction for living expenses for a lost years award will tend to be higher than under a 1976 Act claim. In practice, both under the 1976 Act and for lost years awards there is normally a rough and ready percentage reduction made to the multiplicand for the after-death period as a method of deducting for living expenses. So, for example, in a 1976 Act claim the practice is for there to be a 33% reduction where there is one dependant and 25% where there is more than one dependant. In Housecroft v Burnett [1986] 1 All ER 332, where a 16-year-old girl was very badly injured, the Court of Appeal considered that an alternative to deducting notional living expenses from notional earnings and multiplying by the lost years multiplier, was to add one or a half to the multiplier for the lost years and then to multiply the full multiplicand with no living expenses deduction. But it would appear that the percentage discount from the multiplicand for lost years earnings is the generally preferred methodology. From the above examination of the relevant case law, I conclude that the ratio decidendi (ie the rule explaining the result) of Croke was incorrect because it was in conflict with the law laid down in Pickett and Gammell. I have explained that inconsistency at para 114 above. This is strongly supported, subsequent to Croke, by Iqbal: see paras 124 - 128 above. It follows that, as we have not been asked to overrule Pickett or Gammell, it is Croke that must be overruled. There are other difficulties with the reasoning of Griffiths LJ in Croke. In particular, it proves too much. If the central question is whether the injured claimant has or will have dependants, it would make no sense to confine non-recovery to children because adults may be in the same position of not having dependants. Moreover, once one accepts that the availability of lost years damages does not turn on whether there are or will be dependants, but instead depends on proof of loss, it is plain that one cannot draw a sharp line at “children” or “young children”. The difficulties of proof of loss do not conform to the boundaries of those categories, which are in any event, in this context, ill-defined. Mr Rees, for the respondent on this appeal, essentially rested his case on the proposition that lost years awards to young children should not be made because to do so would always involve excessive speculation. Put another way, it was argued that to prove such a loss is always merely fanciful and entirely speculative. I do not accept that that is correct particularly in the light of the increased sophistication of assessment in the realm of personal injury. As I have also indicated at para 137 above, that submission involves an impossible search for a cut-off point. Mr Rees was not suggesting that a 16-year-old is precluded from a lost years award and in Gammell the person, who had been killed and whose lost years claim survived, was a 15-year-old. As we have seen, subsequent to Croke there have been awards of lost years damages to adolescents. 140. It is also hard to see that, if it is acceptable for a young child to recover damages for loss of future earnings, as it clearly is, there can be any insuperable objection, on grounds of the assessment being too uncertain, to a young child recovering lost years damages. I therefore agree with the thrust of the following passage in Personal Injury Schedules: Calculating Damages 4th ed, (2018) at p 546 (footnotes omitted): “Just because a child’s loss occurs further in the distance does not mean it is any less real than the loss suffered by an adult. Methods of calculation now exist which enable reasonably accurate calculations of loss, albeit that the loss in question does not arise until many years in the future. Where a pecuniary loss is shown to exist, the principle of full compensation requires the court to do its best to assess the value of that loss with as much precision as possible. Now that appropriate tools exist to assist courts and practitioners to perform assessments of future losses more accurately, the fact that a child’s ‘lost years’ claim may not occur for many years is no longer a sufficient argument for preventing a court from undertaking this assessment. If, for example, a child claimant has a life expectancy reduced to the age of 30 by catastrophic injury, he may claim in principle for a loss of the earnings between adulthood at 18, and death at 30. It is difficult to understand by what principle losses beyond 30 are any more speculative and should not be recoverable for the rest of the anticipated working lifespan of the claimant.” Mr Rees submitted that it was particularly difficult to assess the living expenses of a young child in the lost years that need to be deducted in working out the lost years damages. But, as I have explained, these are conventionally based on a rough-and-ready percentage discount and, as Mr Baker for the appellant argued, there is no reason to think that such an approach cannot be sensibly used in respect of young children even if the percentage discount is high because of the high degree of uncertainty involved. 142. Therefore, the reasoning of Griffiths LJ in Croke cannot be upheld. No doubt the consequence of overruling Croke,and the acceptance that damages for lost years can be awarded to young children, will be that actuarial evidence will be relied on by claimants in an attempt to satisfy proof of the lost years loss. Indeed, in the light of the more sophisticated method of assessment that is now used in personal injury cases, it seems extremely unlikely that a court will consider that, where there has been a reduced life expectancy, a claim for lost years by a young child cannot be proved. The difficulties of proving the loss of earnings in the lost years are not significantly greater than in respect of the lifetime lost earnings of a young child and that is an exercise that is routinely carried out. But I would anticipate that, assuming a multiplier approach is being used, there will be a high deduction from lost earnings for living expenses. I also accept that, because of the high degree of uncertainty involved, a court may be entitled to decide that it has no real alternative to taking a broad-brush approach (as explained in para 122 above) rather than the usual multiplier approach. As I have already explained, we were not asked by Mr Rees to overrule Pickett or to restate what it laid down. Rather we have been faced with an acceptance that lost years awards are valid and that Pickett was correct to have overruled Oliver v Ashman. Nevertheless, I am of the view that a reconsideration of Pickett and Gammell is called for. As the political realities mean that it is most unlikely that this will be taken up by the Legislature, even after a review by the Law Commission, it is to be hoped that, following on this decision, there will be an opportunity in a future case to consider Pickett afresh with a seven-person court and full submissions on its merits and demerits. In particular, it strikes me as important to consider in detail two interconnected issues. The first and most fundamental is whether there is any convincing justification for treating a lost years award as compensating a pecuniary loss of the injured claimant. Lost years damages are controversial when viewed as compensating the claimant’s own loss because they cut across the normal principle that there can be no loss to the claimant suffered after the claimant’s death. The claimant can suffer no pecuniary loss (or non-pecuniary loss) once he or she is dead. As it is put in McGregor on Damages at para 41-119, “Wages in heaven should not be awarded when they are not needed on earth.” It follows that there is a strong argument that it is difficult to justify the lost years award when viewed as compensation for a loss of the claimant. Hence, the former view taken, that there should be no lost years damages, by Slade J in Harris v Brights Asphalt Contractors Ltd and by the Court of Appeal in Oliver v Ashman. As a supposed justification for lost years damages, Streatfeild J said in Pope v D Murphy & Son Ltd, at p 231, that: “If I were to hold anything else, I feel very strongly that I should be giving the tortfeasor here, the defendant, the benefit of his own wrong, and that I decline to do.” But that is a punitive rationale which is out of line with the compensatory aim of damages. It would appear that, to counter the objection that the claimant suffers no loss because he or she will not be alive to suffer the loss, one may have to accept the approach of treating the claimant as if an objective capital asset whose life expectancy and hence value and earning capacity have been diminished by the injury. Viewed in this way, a loss of earning capacity may be said to have been suffered by the claimant, while alive. But it may not be easy to justify conceptualising a human being in this way. 148. The second issue is whether Pickett should be reinterpreted as allowing lost years claims only as a means of compensating dependants. That is, if there are and will be no dependants, no lost years damages should be awarded, even if the claimant is an adult. Put another way, if one were to recognise the force of what has just been said above on the first issue, might Pickett nevertheless be regarded as correct on its facts because there were dependants who would lose out if there were no lost years damages awarded? This fits with the explanations of the policy justification given in Pickett itself (see paras 86-89 above). There are also more recent obiter dicta of Lord Phillips in Gregg v Scott [2005] UKHL 2; [2005] 2 AC 176, at paras 178-182 that may be said to offer some support for this approach (although this was not mentioned in any of the other four judgments). Furthermore, this view has the strong support of McGregor on Damages at para 41-119: “The point of principle is that the lost years award does not apply where there is no real prospect of dependency … That applies as much to adults as it does to children.” See also, eg, Ogus, The Law of Damages (1973) pp 185-187; and Alistair Macduff, “Loss of earnings in the ‘lost years’” (2007) JPIL 242. 149. However, to accept this view would contradict the normal principle (reflected in the compensatory aim of damages being to put the claimant into as good a position as if the tort had not been committed: Livingston v Rawyards Coal Co (1880) 5 App Cas 25) that a claimant recovers for his or her own loss and not for the loss of a third party. There would also be some potential consequential difficulties. If the lost years award is to compensate the dependants’ loss, would the award have to be held on trust for the dependants and how would this work where there were no dependants at the time of the award but there is a real prospect that there will be in the future? If this were to be the correct approach, it would also require a change to the way in which the living expenses would be assessed so as to bring the calculation precisely into line with the approach under the 1976 Act. Given the stance taken by Mr Rees, there were no submissions by the respondent as to how, if at all, these potential problems might be overcome. But it is noteworthy that, in respect of damages for cost of care, there have been similar questions raised as to whether, where the care is gratuitously carried out by a third party, the loss is really the third party’s rather than the claimant’s. In that context it was accepted by the House of Lords in Hunt v Severs [1994] 2 AC 350 that the loss is the carer’s and not the claimant’s so that those damages must be held on trust for the third party. 150. The decision of the Court of Appeal in Croke that lost years damages cannot be awarded to a young child was inconsistent with the decisions of the House of Lords in Pickett and Gammell and should be overruled. Whether lost years damages will be awarded to a young child, and the quantum of such an award, should depend on the normal principles and practice of proving loss. I anticipate that, usually, the multiplier approach will be applied, based on the Ogden Tables, but with a high percentage deduction for the claimant’s living expenses. Following this decision, it is to be hoped that there is an opportunity in a future case to consider Pickett afresh with a seven-person court and full submissions on its merits and demerits. For all the above reasons, the appeal should be allowed and the case should be remitted to the trial judge to decide, in the light of the judgments on this appeal whether there should be a lost years award on the facts (I anticipate that there will be) and what the quantum of that award should be. I have read in draft, with admiration, the judgment of Lord Reed, with which I agree. I add a few words primarily to emphasise the duty on judges to assess damages in circumstances where a cause of action has been established and a loss has been sustained. The principle is that a claimant is entitled, as a matter of right and of justice, to have the court quantify their full loss notwithstanding forensic difficulty: see Mastercard v Merricks [2020] UKSC 51; [2021] Bus LR 25, at paras 45-51, and Lord Reed’s judgment in this appeal at paras 56-57. The principle of full compensation applies to pecuniary and non-pecuniary damage alike. In the case of pecuniary loss, the courts have progressively been prepared to rely on ever more sophisticated evidence and calculations to establish the extent of a claimant’s loss. Amongst other heads of damages, the claimant sought damages for loss of earnings during the survival period and lost years damages, that is damages for loss of earnings and loss of pension minus living expenses during the period of her shortened life expectancy. 154. In relation to children there are greater difficulties in assessing damages for future loss of earnings during the survival period than occur in relation to adults. The earning capacity of a young child may be distant in time from the date of injury and from the date of trial. The difficulties will be compounded if, for instance, the young child has sustained a brain injury at birth and is unable to demonstrate prior to sustaining the injury intellectual ability or character traits upon which some assessment can be made as to what his or her individual earning capacity would have been if uninjured. However, if the injuries sustained by a young child are such that he or she will not be able to work or will only have a reduced wage-earning ability, then the young child has probably sustained a loss. The difficulties in assessment do not detract from the simple proposition that a probable loss has been sustained and must be assessed. The assessment of the loss calls for moderation with due regard to the vicissitudes of life, but the obligation remains to assess the loss and to award compensation for the undoubted loss which has been sustained. Indeed, claims for loss of earnings made by young children who have sustained personal injuries affecting their ability to work are routinely assessed by the courts despite acknowledged difficulties in carrying out that assessment. Such assessments are standard and commonplace. Despite the difficulties of assessment in this case, the respondents agreed in the statement of facts that CCC was likely to have gained GCSEs and higher qualifications from college or university leading to paid employment and, if uninjured, was likely to have worked to the statutory retirement age and would have received some sort of pension for the remainder of her life. The respondents also agreed the claimant’s award for future loss of earnings at £160,000 during her anticipated life span up to the age of 29. The assessment of that loss was not too speculative. Whilst the claim for loss of earnings to the age of 29 was not too speculative the respondents then asserted that upon her anticipated death, at the age of 29, the assessment of loss of earnings, loss of pension and the assessment of her living expenses during the period of her lost years was suddenly too speculative. It is informative to juxtapose the acknowledged ability to assess loss of earnings during the survival period to age 29 with assertion that upon her anticipated death the assessment becomes all too speculative. The juxtaposition exposes the inherent contradiction. 157. The question for the respondent was: why is it any more difficult to assess the claimant’s lost years claim than the claim for loss of earnings during the survival period? Self-evidently the answer could not lie in relation to the claimant’s likely earnings. These had already been agreed up to the age of 29. Mr Rees, on behalf of the respondent, attempted to answer this question by reference to the difference between a claim for loss of earnings and a claim for the lost years. Living expenses fall to be deducted in a lost years claim but play no part in the assessment of damages for future loss of earnings. Mr Rees submitted that the additional difficulty in assessing a lost years’ claim is in assessing the amount of living expenses which are required to be deducted over the whole period of the claim. He submitted that the deduction of living expenses would only commence at the anticipated date of the claimant’s death and thereafter living expenses would be deducted during the whole of claimant’s normal life expectancy. So, in this case, the task of the trial judge would have been to assess the amount of living expenses after the anticipated date of death when the claimant was 29, which was 21 years after the date of trial, and then to assess the amount of those living expenses for each year of the claimant’s normal life expectancy. Mr Rees posed the question of how, in such circumstances, can a court sensibly assess the amount of living expenses which fall to be deducted? Mr Rees submitted that by virtue of this additional difficulty in assessing the amount of living expenses, the whole exercise of assessing the claim for lost years in this case involving a young child is entirely speculative. 158. I reject this submission on the basis that deductions for living expenses can be based on a rough-and-ready (or broad brush) percentage discount. The question then arises as to what is the rough-and-ready percentage discount? There is a spectrum in respect of the amount spent by an individual on his or her own living expenses. The spectrum ranges from miserliness through frugality and moderation to profligacy. A rough-and-ready discount should not be arbitrary or artificial so caution must be applied to simply always using a standard or conventional percentage discount. The basic rule of the common law is that a claimant is entitled to have the court assess the discount even if it is on a rough-and-ready basis. So, the task of the trial judge is to decide on the facts of the case on a rough-and-ready basis whereabouts in that spectrum the claimant will fall and then to apply the appropriate percentage discount. The assessment of the discount feeds into the assessment of lost years damages. The overall assessment calls for suitable moderation. In this case it will be a matter for the trial judge to determine the appropriate rough-and-ready percentage deduction for living expenses. So, the first point I make is that the assessment of lost years damages in this case is not too speculative. The second point I make is that the respondent’s assertion in relation to lost years damages being too speculative leads to incoherence. The point can be illustrated by imagining a pair of identical one-year-old twin sisters being gravely injured in the same car accident. Both are rendered incapable of ever earning. But one’s life expectancy is until 30 and the other’s until 40. The forensic difficulties of assessing what each might have earned between 30 and 40, or what their expenses might be, are exactly the same and are not at all affected by their different actual life expectancies resulting from their injuries. Their life expectancies if the injuries had not been sustained are the same. Yet merely because one has a shorter actual life expectancy after sustaining her injuries (and therefore presumably a graver injury) she would obtain less compensation than her sister: i.e. nothing for the period between 30 and 40. That is incoherent. 161. The third point I make is that Comyn J in Connolly incorrectly failed to make an award for lost years damages. In that case Comyn J arrived at a figure of £7,500 for loss of earnings up to the anticipated date of the claimant’s death. The claimant was a child who had sustained catastrophic injuries when 17 days old, who at trial was four years old, and who had a reduced life expectancy to the age of 27 ½ years. The judge arrived at the figure of £7,500 by applying the yardstick that the child would have followed in his father’s footsteps obtaining employment in the plastering trade earning £60 per week or thereabouts. The details of the calculation are not clear, but this was then said to produce a figure for future loss of earnings of £15,000 which, without explanation, Comyn J then discounted by 50% to produce an award for loss of earnings of £7,500. Having assessed loss of earnings up to the anticipated date of the claimant’s death, Comyn J then proceeded to assess the claim for the lost years at nil as the loss had not been proved. Comyn J proffered no explanation as to why the claim for loss of future earnings had been proved but the claim for the lost years had not been proved. I agree with Comyn J’s analysis that Pickett and Gammell did not lay down a rule that as a matter of law young children cannot be awarded lost years damages. I consider that Comyn J was correct to grapple with and to award an amount in relation to loss of earnings during the claimant’s life span up to the age of 27 ½. The claim for loss of earnings was not too speculative and, as he was required to do, he made an award for future loss of earnings, though the present methods of assessing the loss are different from the methods employed by Comyn J. Reading the judgment as a whole, whilst Comyn J faithfully and conscientiously strove to do justice to both the claimant and the defendant, I consider that there was inconsistency between Comyn J’s award of future loss of earnings and his finding that the claim for lost years had not been proved. Given this inconsistency and the evidence which the judge accepted in relation to the claim for loss of future earnings, I consider that an award ought to have been made in respect of the claim for lost years damages. The fourth point I make is that the practice on proof of loss has developed. It is now much more sophisticated than it was at the time of Pickett, Gammell, and Croke. To my mind in relation to a claim for loss of earnings brought by a young child, it would be entirely extraordinary and most likely perverse not to make any award of damages on the basis that the claim was “entirely speculative.” It would also be extraordinary not to make any award for the lost years’ damages on the basis that the claim was speculative. I also consider that uncertainty should not lead a court to making inappropriately parsimonious awards. In conclusion the present appeal should be allowed and the case remitted to the trial judge in order for damages for the claimant’s lost years to be assessed. 164. I am grateful to Lord Reed, Lord Burrows and Lord Stephens for setting out with such clarity the dilemma which faces this court in this sad case. Having carefully considered the previous case law, I have, however, concluded that there is a principled distinction between the position of Mr Pickett, Mr Gammell and Mr Furness on the one hand and the young children in Croke v Wiseman, Iqbal v Whipps Cross and Oliver v Ashman on the other. The difference is that for an adult claimant, the court has before it some evidence of the individual characteristics and abilities of the person whose loss is being compensated. Based on that evidence, the court can make findings about what that person would have achieved in their working life if their life had not been irrevocably changed by the defendant’s negligence. The court can then assess the value of what the person has lost. Where the claimant is a child and there is no evidence about how that individual would have grown and developed, the court is required instead to calculate damages on the basis of assumptions about the child’s future abilities, opportunities and earning power, based on factors such as their gender and their family background, including their social class. Not only does that push the court into uncomfortable territory, as I discuss below, but it contradicts a fundamental principle of tort law which is that the loss to be compensated is the loss suffered by this individual claimant. As Lord Parker CJ said in the seminal case of Smith v Leech Brain & Co Ltd [1962] 2 QB 405, 414: “It has always been the law of this country that a tortfeasor takes his victim as he finds him. It is unnecessary to do more than refer to the short passage in the decision of Kennedy J in Dulieu v White & Sons [1901] 2 KB 669, 679 where he said: ‘If a man is negligently run over or otherwise negligently injured in his body, it is no answer to the sufferer’s claim for damages that he would have suffered less injury, or no injury at all, if he had not had an unusually thin skull or an unusually weak heart.’” Lord Parker held in that case that what mattered was whether Mr Smith’s employers could reasonably foresee the type of injury he suffered as a result of their negligence, in that case a burn to his lip: “What, in the particular case, is the amount of damage which he suffers as a result of that burn, depends upon the characteristics and constitution of the victim.” The loss for which the claimant is entitled to be compensated may be more or less than the loss that would have been caused by the defendant’s negligence to another victim, whether the other victim was a member of the claimant’s family or a hypothetical average person. An individual who suffers a head injury in a road accident caused by the defendant’s negligence is compensated for the full extent of their injury even if they had an “egg shell skull” making them more vulnerable than other members of their family or the average person. Conversely if the claimant has an unusually thick skull and so suffers a less serious injury than might have been expected, the defendant is fortunate because his liability is reduced. There are many circumstances in many areas of the law in which the court must speculate either about what will happen in the future or about what would have happened in the past if things had been different. There is no doubt that even with an adult claimant like Mr Pickett, there is a great deal of speculation involved in quantifying the likely course of his working life. But the “speculation” involved in assessing loss of future earnings for a child will in many cases be different in kind and not just in degree from the speculation involved in quantifying future lost years earnings for a working adult. That is because there may be no evidence as to the child’s abilities which can form a proper starting point for that speculation. I recognise the force of the point made by the other members of the court that the court does regularly assess and award lost earnings for the survival period even for the youngest claimants. No one (except Lord Denning) has argued that there should be no award of lost earnings for the survival period. That involves the same kind of speculation about the child’s future as I have just described – albeit that the degree of speculation is increased the further into the future the court has to look as from the date of assessment. My answer to that point, as I develop later, is that logic has always been an unreliable guide when applied to determining the proper boundaries of tortious compensation, particular for economic loss which is what lost years earnings are. There are good policy reasons for continuing to award damages which in effect substitute for the earnings that the child would have received to cover their daily living expenses for the period when the child will in fact still incur those expenses. That may justify making an exception to the principle I have described above that it is incumbent on the claimant to prove his or her particular loss as an individual. But logic is not a sound basis for extending the liability of the defendant to cover the lost years earnings. There are important decisions of this court and the House of Lords in which lines have been drawn based on policy grounds and the reasons expressed for drawing those lines are very similar to the reasons which pertain in the current case. It is necessary first to consider what the House of Lords decided in Pickett. Their Lordships certainly did not think they were deciding that a young child should receive an award for lost years earnings. The claimant in Pickett was exposed to asbestos dust whilst working for the defendant. In 1974 he contracted mesothelioma. In July he brought an action against the defendant claiming damages for personal injuries. The evidence at trial showed that if he had not contracted the disease his life expectancy was 65 but this had been reduced to one year. He died shortly after judgment and his wife continued the appeal as the administratrix of his estate. The Court of Appeal held that he was not entitled to be compensated for any loss of earnings during the lost years. Lord Wilberforce first described the deceased as very fit “with an excellent physical record” such that there could be no doubt that he could have looked forward to a normal period of continued employment up to retiring age: page 146. The issue before the House was whether to overrule Oliver v Ashman which decided that no damages could be awarded for lost years earnings. He referred to the unsatisfactory nature of the then current state of the law which threw up from time to time cases which did “not appeal to a sense of justice”. Lord Wilberforce referred to Benham v Gambling [1941] AC 157 which was a case of a young child killed almost instantly. In that case, there was no claim made for loss of future earnings. The issue was rather as to the appropriate conventional sum to award for loss of expectation of life. That case was not dealing with a claim by a living person for lost years earnings. 173. Lord Wilberforce’s conclusion in Pickett was expressed at p 150: “My Lords, in the case of the adult wage earner with or without dependants who sues for damages during his lifetime, I am convinced that a rule which enables the ‘lost years’ to be taken account of comes closer to the ordinary man’s expectations than one which limits his interest to his shortened span of life. The interest which such a man has in the earnings he might hope to make over a normal life, if not saleable in a market, has a value which can be assessed. A man who receives that assessed value would surely consider himself and be considered compensated – a man denied it would not. And I do not think that to act in this way creates insoluble problems of assessment in other cases. In that of a young child (cf Benham v Gambling [1941] AC 157) neither present nor future earnings could enter into the matter: in the more difficult case of adolescents just embarking upon the process of earning (cf Skelton v Collins (1966) 115 CLR 94) the value of ‘lost’ earnings might be real but would probably be assessable as small.” 174. “The amount awarded will depend upon the facts of each particular case. They may vary greatly from case to case. At one end of the scale, the claim may be made on behalf of a young child or his estate. In such a case, the lost earnings are so unpredictable and speculative that only a minimal sum could properly be awarded. At the other end of the scale, the claim may be made by a man in the prime of life or, if he dies, on behalf of his estate; if he has been in good employment for years with every prospect of continuing to earn a good living until he reaches the age of retirement, after all the relevant factors have been taken into account, the damages recoverable from the defendant are likely to be substantial. The amount will, of course, vary, sometimes greatly, according to the particular facts of the case under consideration.” Lord Salmon held that Oliver v Ashman had been correctly decided because “in the case of a child of such tender years, the amount of the earnings which he might have lost was so speculative and unpredictable that the sum in the award attributable to that element must have been minimal and could therefore be disregarded” (p 156A). The question, Lord Salmon said, was whether that case decided lost years could never be taken into account in assessing damages. He held that it did not but in so far as it did, it should be overruled. Lord Edmund-Davies’ speech in Pickett focused on the question whether there was any loss suffered by the claimant in the period beyond the anticipated date of his premature death: p 162D. He regarded Oliver v Ashman has having decided that lost years earnings can never be recovered and therefore as being wrong. Lord Scarman agreed with Lords Wilberforce, Salmon and Edmund-Davies. In the list of objections put forward to the recovery of lost years earnings, Lord Scarman included the objection that the plaintiff may be so young “that it is absurd that he should be compensated for future loss of earnings”. He dismissed this on the basis that “it will be taken care of in the ordinary course of litigation: a measurable and not too remote loss has to be proved before it can enter into the assessment of damages.” Again, Lord Scarman seems to have assumed that the absence of the proof that is required in ordinary litigation would likely preclude any award of lost years earnings for a child. What Pickett therefore decided was: first that there is in principle a claim for lost years earnings and that Oliver v Ashman was wrong in so far as it decided that there could be no such claim. Secondly, that the claim is in respect of loss suffered by the claimant and not by his dependants. That means that the claim can be made whether or not he has dependants and whether or not he is likely to have given them the benefit of any savings he made during his life or after his death. Thirdly, when making an award, the court should deduct an amount to reflect the living expenses “saved” by the fact that the claimant will no longer be alive incurring those expenses. I agree with those three principles. What the House did not decide was that in a case where there is no evidence before the court about the claimant’s past earnings or about this particular claimant’s earning potential, the court can and should rely instead on evidence about other people in order to guess what the claimant’s life would have been like had he or she not been injured. On the contrary, their reasons for rejecting the possibility of an award for a young child were, in my view, based on the likely absence of any evidence on which to assess the child’s future earning potential. That was why the case of a young child would be very different from the case before them where there was ample evidence of Mr Pickett’s previous work record and physical health and aptitude. This was also discussed perhaps more clearly in the House of Lords’ judgment in the two cases Gammell v Wilson and Furness v B & S Massey. In those two joined cases the victim had been killed instantly. The victim’s cause of action continued for the benefit of his estate under the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1934. This was subject to a proviso in section 1(2)(c) that where the death of that person gives rise to a cause of action, the compensation “shall be calculated without reference to any loss or gain to his estate consequent on his death, except that a sum in respect of funeral expenses may be included.” (my emphasis) The question was whether the lost years earnings fell within that proviso as being a gain “consequent on the victim’s death” and so not recoverable by his estate. Their Lordships held that the lost years earnings were not so “consequent” and so were recoverable by the estate. 180. Both the victims in those cases were young men who had already embarked on their working lives. But their Lordships were very unhappy with upholding the award that they considered the court was bound by Pickett to make. Lord Diplock said at p 62 that “Where the deceased is as young as in these two cases (15 and 22 years respectively) the law requires the judge to indulge in what can be no better than the merest speculation about what might have happened to the deceased during a normal working life-span if he had not been prematurely killed.” He went on: (p 65) “if the only victims of fatal accidents were middle-aged married men in steady employment living their lives according to a well-settled pattern that would have been unlikely to change if they had lived on uninjured, the assessment of damages for loss of earnings during the lost years may not involve what can only be matters of purest speculation. But as the instant appeals demonstrate and so do other unreported cases which have been drawn to the attention of this House, in cases where there is no such settled pattern – and this must be so in a high proportion of cases of fatal injuries – the judge is faced with a task that is so purely one of guesswork that it is not susceptible of solution by the judicial process. Guesses by different judges are likely to differ widely – yet no-one can say that one is right and another wrong.” Lord Edmund-Davies described the House in Pickett as having been ineluctably driven to hold that the injured plaintiff could recover lost years earnings. He said at 70G-H that “the assessment of compensation for the ‘lost years’ rests upon no special basis of its own and it proceeds on no peculiar principle. It may present unusual difficulties, but the task itself is the ordinary one of arriving at a fair figure to compensate the estate of the deceased for a loss of a particular kind sustained by him in his lifetime at the hands of the defendant.” He held that although the evidence before the trial judge “was admittedly meagre”, it was there to be weighed up. 182. Lord Fraser of Tullybelton also found that the result compelled by a combination of the legislation and Pickett led to a result which was neither sensible nor just. He said: (pp 71-72) “It is particularly difficult to justify the law in cases such as the present, in each of which the deceased was a young man with no established earning capacity or settled pattern of life. In such cases it is hardly possible to make a reasonable estimate of his probable earnings during the ‘lost years’ and it is, I think, quite impossible to take the further step of making a reasonable estimate of the free balance that would have been available above the cost of maintaining himself throughout the ‘lost years.’ … The process of assessing damages in such cases is so extremely uncertain that it can hardly be dignified with the name of calculation; it is little more than speculation. Yet that is the process which the courts are obliged to carry out at present.” Lord Russell, no doubt feeling that his dissent in Pickett had been fully vindicated by the cases then before the House, said that the law had “gone astray by excessive refinements of theory” leading “to almost grotesque embodiment of estimates or rather guesses”. With a child claimant the difficulty facing the court is not merely that there is “no established earning capacity or settled pattern of life”. The problem is that there in many cases may not be even the “meagre” evidence that there was in relation to Mr Gammell as to how he or she is likely to turn out. So the “evidence” purporting to prove the quantum of their loss must derive not from any known characteristic of theirs but from the characteristics of their family members, or of members of some cohort with which they are said to share some particular characteristic so that the successes and failures of their family or of that segment of society are used as a proxy for what is likely to have happened to them. 185. The point – and the mischief it engenders – can be illustrated most clearly in the speech of Lord Scarman in Gammell. At p 78 he said: “In civil litigation it is the balance of probabilities which matters. In the case of a young child, the lost years of earning capacity will ordinarily be so distant that assessment is mere speculation. No estimate being possible, no award – not even a ‘conventional’ award – should ordinarily be made. Even so, there will be exceptions: a child television star, cut short in her prime at the age of five, might have a claim: it would depend on the evidence. A teenage boy or girl, however, as in Gammell’s case may well be able to show either actual employment or real prospects, in either of which situations there will be an assessable claim. In the case of a young man, already in employment (as was young Mr Furness), one would expect to find evidence upon which a fair estimate of loss can be made. A man, well established in life, like Mr Pickett, will have no difficulty. But in all cases it is a matter of evidence and a reasonable estimate based upon it.” Lord Scarman described the evidence about the claimant in Gammell in the following terms: (p 79) “The boy was 15. His father is of the Romany blood, uneducated and illiterate. His mother is a well-educated woman who, as a witness, impressed the judge. She knew her boy and was confident he would make his way in the world. He never went to school, but his mother taught him his three ‘Rs’ At 14 (the year before he died) he began work. When he died, he was earning £20 a week from the sort of work he, with his Romany background, was well placed to find (fruit picking, scrap dealing and road surfacing). He was saving up for a van in order to follow the career of an antique dealer (in the footsteps of an uncle). When he died, his future was not merely matter for speculation: he had made a start, was in work, and had won the confidence of his sensible mother, who had herself educated him.” Lord Scarman therefore rejected the criticism of the £8 per week multiplicand for the lost years as being “a figure picked out of the sky”. He said it was not; it was based on the circumstances known to the judge: p 79D. One might ask if Mr Gammell had been killed or seriously disabled at birth, would the court have been required or entitled to assume that because of his “Romany blood” he would have spent his working life fruit picking and road surfacing? It is true that relying on such outdated and unacceptable assumptions at least resulted in the Gammell family receiving some recompense for their son’s lost years earnings rather than none. But that is not, in my view, the point. As Lord Edmund-Davies said in Gammell at p 70G-H: “the assessment of compensation for the ‘lost years’ rests upon no special basis of its own and it proceeds on no peculiar principle.” One of the principles for assessing compensation is that it must be based on evidence about the claimant him or herself. There is such evidence where the claimant has started work, whether they are a fruit picker or a child television star. I would not limit the cases in which an award is possible to those where the claimant has already started work. A young claimant may be able to adduce evidence about his or her abilities at a much younger age than the age at which they are ready to join the workforce. Further, the problem is not, as Lord Scarman suggested, that the lost years are too far distant. It does not matter, therefore, whether the claimant brings his claim soon after the injury or waits until adulthood before bringing the claim as happened in JR v Sheffield Teaching Hospitals NHS Foundation Trust [2017] EWHC 1245 (QB); [2017] 1 WLR 4847. The fact that by the time the case comes before the court, the severely disabled claimant is closer in age to the start of the lost years period may assist in showing that they have indeed survived the perils of the earlier years. But it does not help in establishing what they would have become had they not been injured. 190. I therefore consider that Comyn J was broadly right in how he approached the task in Connolly. The plaintiff was severely injured by a negligently performed operation shortly after his birth. His father was in the plastering trade though had been out of work for some time before the hearing. On the question of future earnings for the survival period, given a life expectancy to age 27.5 years, he said (p 255) that “[t]he only yardstick, if it can even be dignified with that word, that could be taken was in the plastering trade, following in father’s footsteps”. He recorded that both counsel had arrived at a figure of £60 a week or thereabouts giving a total of £15,000. He reduced this by half noting that “It is all very problematical, all very artificial, all very hypothetical, all very difficult”. Turning to the lost years earning, he said he had read and reread the House of Lords’ decisions in Pickett and Gammell and concluded that “running as an undercurrent” in some of the speeches was that a child was in a different position to a young man. 191. Applying the principles to the case before him, Comyn J said that there was no hard and fast rule as to whether lost years earnings can be recovered: “a child qualifies as such under this head of damage dependent on the ability to prove”. I agree with that proposition. Where I would disagree with him is when he goes on to refer to cases in which damages can be “proved”. He refers to “the Shirley Temple case or that of a television star” and I agree that where a child has an established earning record then there is evidence on which a judge may decide, given Pickett, to award earnings for both the survival period and the lost years. I would disagree with his other examples in so far as they apply to a child injured at or shortly after birth, in particular that of “the son of a father who owns a prosperous business”. That immediately begs the question – in my mind at least – whether the daughter of such a father should also be assumed to be likely to step into his shoes. In neither case is there any evidence at all about whether the child has inherited its father’s business acumen or work ethic. There is a risk of unfairness to defendants in that their liability is likely to be increased where the family of the claimant is successful but the court may prefer to fall back on published average earnings figures where the family is unsuccessful. A court may therefore be invited to assume that a child will follow in its family members’ footsteps if its parents and siblings are gainfully employed. But if the claimant’s father has spent most of his adult life in prison and his brother has lived on social security benefits, it would be difficult for the court to dismiss the claim for loss of earnings on the assumption that the claimant would have followed a similar path. 193. I do not agree that the absence of any evidence on which to base predictions of future earnings is helped by reliance on the Ogden tables as described by Lord Burrows in paras 119 onwards of his judgment. The problem created by the lost years earnings is not the number of years to be used as the multiplier, but the earnings sum to be used as the multiplicand. The Ogden tables may have brought a greater sophistication to the task of working out what the multiplier should be. The tables address the problem that arises because simply multiplying an annual figure for loss of earnings by the number of years for which the claimant is expected to survive post injury would overcompensate the claimant for two reasons. The first is that claimants receive a lump sum in their hands years before they would actually have received the earnings periodically over the course of their working life. Secondly, it assumes that the claimant would have been in employment for the entire duration of the period of their working life. This does not take into account the vicissitudes of life such as early death, ill-health, childcare and redundancy. The Ogden tables therefore provide multipliers which can be used in different circumstances, for example depending on when the loss is assumed to begin and whether it will continue to retirement age, or beyond or for a fixed period after which the claimant is expected to recover their full pre-injury working capability. The multipliers provided by most of the tables account for the risk that the claimant would have died early, based on average male and female life expectancy. The discount rate reflects an assumed annual interest rate that the claimant will obtain on the lump sum, after tax and inflation. As to the vicissitudes of life, early versions of the tables only took into account the possibility that the claimant would die early. But since the second edition in 1994, the Ogden tables have also allowed for other contingencies. What the Ogden tables do not help with at all is working out the multiplicand, that is the annual earnings figure to which the multipliers derived from Tables 1 – 36 and the Additional Tables should be applied to arrive at the correct figure for future loss. They do not therefore help with the problem that arises if there is no evidence before the court as to what the claimant would have earned if he or she had not been injured. 196. Even Tables A – D which enable adjustments to be made to the multiplicand by applying baseline and reduction multipliers to a pre-accident earning capacity figure assume that the court will first have come up with that pre-accident earnings figure. They assume that it is possible to know the claimant’s level of disability before the accident, his or her level of educational attainment, working status at the time of the accident and likely retirement age. The explanatory notes to the Ogden tables address claimants of a young age at paras 37 to 39. They explain that some of the tables have been extended down to age 0 but that multipliers for loss of earnings (Tables 3 to 18) have not been extended below 16. They state that for claimants who have not yet started work, it is first necessary to determine an assumed age at which they would have started work and then find the appropriate multiplier before applying discount or deferment factors. The Ogden tables have, therefore, nothing useful to say about what CCC’s earning capacity should be. 197. They also do not address the difficulty of arriving at a figure by which to reduce the lost years earnings to take account of the living expenses “saved” by the fact that the claimant will no longer be alive. Before the Ogden tables, judges used a rough and ready multiplier. The Ogden tables have brought some actuarial rigour to that part of the exercise but the rough and ready element in the calculation has been replaced by the need to pick a percentage by which the resulting earnings figure must be reduced to take account of such living expenses. In addition, the further one has to look into the future, the greater the uncertainties and the greater the degree of speculation. In the present case, for example, the survival period is to the age of 29: a period which will end in 2044. The lost years assessment involves the assumption that the claimant would have worked until 2083 and would then have received a pension until her death which would presumably have been around the end of this century or the beginning of the next century. 198. That brings me to the issue of the logical inconsistency between the principle I have set out above which would deny recovery for lost years earnings where there is no evidence available as to the likely career of the infant victim and the fact that courts regularly award lost earnings for the survival period when there is similarly no evidence on which to base that. A logical approach might suggest that an award of damages for loss of earnings should not be made in either case. However, awards have been made in respect of the survival period, but not, until the present case, in respect of the lost years for an infant claimant. The Connolly case exemplifies the difficulty of distinguishing between the lost earnings for the survival period and the lost earnings beyond that in the lost years. Comyn J was prepared to assume that the little boy would have grown up to be a plasterer like his father for the purpose of assessing lost earnings for the years up to age 27.5. But the judge did not carry forward that assumption for the lost decades between age 27.5 and whatever life expectancy was for a child born into that family at that time. 199. In my judgment, the difference in approach which has been adopted in the previous authorities can be justified in principle and should not be abandoned for the sake of consistency. The members of the House of Lords in Pickett did not regard it as illogical that they awarded Mr Pickett lost years earnings but said that no such award should be made for a young child: see the passages I have set out earlier at paras 173, 174 and 176 above. I agree with the other members of the panel that the distinguishing feature cannot be that Mr Pickett had dependants whereas an infant has no dependants and no immediate prospect of dependants. But the references to dependants in Pickett are nonetheless important since they show how the decision in Pickett was driven by policy concerns, as Lord Burrows has explained at paras 86-88 above. Its rationale was to provide a fund for the claimant’s dependants, on the assumption that no dependants’ claim could follow upon the injured party’s claim. According to Lord Wilberforce, that assumption – that the dependants’ claim would be excluded – “provides a basis, in logic and justice, for allowing the victim to recover for earnings lost during his lost years” (p 146). Accordingly, as Lord Wilberforce said at p 151, “the basis, in principle, for recovery lies in the interest which [the claimant] has in making provision for dependants and others, and this he would do out of his surplus”. Similarly, in the later case of Gregg v Scott [2005] 2 AC 176 Lord Phillips emphasised at para 180 that the rationale of the decision in Pickett to allow damages for loss of earnings during the lost years was that “[o]nly in this way could provision be made for the loss to be suffered by the dependants”. Pickett is certainly not the only case in which an important element of policy has been introduced to temper the pursuit of logic and consistency in this area of the law. Limits have been placed on recovery for personal injury in, for example, the well-known case of McLoughlin v O’Brian [1983] 1 AC 410 (“McLoughlin”) on recovery for psychiatric illness by a claimant who witnessed her close relatives in the aftermath of a road accident caused by the defendant’s negligence. Lord Wilberforce’s comment at p 419H of McLoughlin is, in my judgment, particularly pertinent to the issue of jumping from loss of earnings for the survival period to those for the lost years: “To argue from one factual situation to another and to decide by analogy is a natural tendency of the human and the legal mind. But the lawyer still has to inquire whether, in so doing, he has crossed some critical line behind which he ought to stop.” Lord Wilberforce eschewed reliance on the absence of a duty of care owed by the motorist to people other than those in the vicinity of the accident. He considered that the extent of liability should: (p 420D) “… rest upon a common principle, namely that, at the margin, the boundaries of a man’s responsibility for acts of negligence have to be fixed as a matter of policy.” As to what policy reasons justify drawing the line between recoverable survival period earnings and lost years earnings, Lord Wilberforce referred in McLoughlin to the additional burden placed on insurers and ultimately upon the class of persons insured. That is an important consideration in the present case where it is the NHS Foundation Trust which is already liable for the £6,866,615 Ritchie J ordered, a sum which did not include any compensation for lost years earnings. 203. The discussion of this boundary by Griffiths LJ in Croke v Wiseman is also valuable. He upheld the award for lost earnings during the survival period for an infant victim and did not read Pickett as contradicting that. He agreed that there should be no award for lost years but justified the award for the survival period by reference to compelling social reasons: (pp 82-83) “However, when one is considering the case of a gravely injured child who is going to live for many years into adult life, very different considerations apply. There are compelling social reasons why a sum of money should be awarded for his future loss of earnings. The money will be required to care for him. Take the present case; the cost of future nursing care has been assessed upon the basis of nurses coming in to care for him for part of the day and night. It is not a case where damages have been awarded which will provide a sufficient sum for him to go into a residential home and be cared for at all times. Damages awarded for his future loss of earnings will in the future be available to provide a home for him and to feed him and provide for such extra comforts as he can appreciate. It cannot be assumed that his parents will remain able to house, feed and care for him throughout the rest of his life. If, of course, damages have been awarded upon the basis of the full cost of residential care so that they include the cost of roof and board, any award for future loss of earnings will be small because there will be a very large overlap between the two heads of damage. The plaintiff must not be awarded his future living expenses twice over; this would be unfair to the defendants. In my judgment the line drawn by Griffiths and Shaw LJJ in Croke v Wiseman is the correct line; the claimant has a need for a sum of money to pay for their care during the survival period and that need is met by the award of lost earnings. That can be regarded as a justified exception to the general rule that loss must be proved on the basis of the characteristics of the individual claimant and not on the characteristics of some different person or of the average member of some cohort to which they may belong. But a claimant has no such need during the lost years. I would therefore dismiss the appeal on the basis that damages for lost earnings at least where there is no evidence before the court as to the claimant’s earning capacity or individual characteristics should be awarded up to the end of the survival period and should not extend to the lost years.

On TNA: From TNA: CCC v Sheffield Teaching Hospitals NHS Foundation Trust

18.02.2026 15:02 👍 0 🔁 0 💬 0 📌 0
Preview
‘Tailored rules’ for AI chatbots ‘would add to Online Safety Act complexity’ Bringing AI chatbots within the scope of the UK’s Online Safety Act would likely require tailored rules that would add further complexity to legislation that is already too prescriptive, a technology law expert has said.

From Out-Law: ‘Tailored rules’ for AI chatbots ‘would add to Online Safety Act complexity’

17.02.2026 02:13 👍 0 🔁 0 💬 0 📌 0
Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction Act 2026 An Act to make provision for and in connection with the implementation by the United Kingdom of the Agreement under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea on the Conservation and Sustainable Use of Marine Biological Diversity of Areas Beyond National Jurisdiction.

New Act on TNA: Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction Act 2026

13.02.2026 17:41 👍 0 🔁 0 💬 0 📌 0
Secure 16 to 19 Academies Act 2026 Status: This is the original version (as it was originally enacted). This item of legislation is currently only available in its original format. An Act to make provision about the notice period for termination of funding agreements for secure 16 to 19 Academies; to make provision about the Secretary of State’s duty to consider the impact on existing educational institutions when it is proposed to establish or expand a secure 16 to 19 Academy; and to alter the consultation question required when it is proposed to establish or expand a secure 16 to 19 Academy. Be it enacted by the King’s most Excellent Majesty, by and with the advice and consent of the Lords Spiritual and Temporal, and Commons, in this present Parliament assembled, and by the authority of the same, as follows:— 1Secure 16 to 19 Academies (funding, impact and consultation) (1)The Academies Act 2010 is amended as follows. (2)In section 2 (payments under Academy agreements), after subsection (2) insert— “(2A)Subsection (2) applies to an Academy agreement in respect of a secure 16 to 19 Academy as though the references to 7 years were references to 2 years.” (3)In section 9 (impact: new and expanded educational institutions), in subsection (1), after paragraph (b) (and on a new line) insert— “except where the institution, if the arrangements are entered into, is to be a secure 16 to 19 Academy.” (4)In section 10 (consultation: new and expanded educational institutions)— (a)after subsection (2) insert— “(2A)But where the educational institution, if the arrangements are entered into, is to be a secure 16 to 19 Academy— (a)the person is not required to carry out a consultation on that question, and (b)they must instead carry out a consultation on the question of how they should cooperate with potential local partners in connection with the establishment and carrying on of the Academy. (2B)“Potential local partners” in subsection (2A)(b) means— (a)persons exercising functions of a public nature, and (b)so far as not falling within paragraph (a), proprietors of educational institutions, with whom the person carrying out the consultation thinks it appropriate to cooperate.”; (b)in subsection (3), for “The consultation” substitute “A consultation under this section”. 2Extent, commencement and short title (1)This Act extends to England and Wales. (2)This Act comes into force at the end of the period of two months beginning with the day on which it is passed. (3)This Act may be cited as the Secure 16 to 19 Academies Act 2026.

New Act on TNA: Secure 16 to 19 Academies Act 2026

13.02.2026 16:44 👍 0 🔁 0 💬 0 📌 0
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New Act on TNA: Licensing Hours Extensions Act 2026

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Dairy UK Ltd v Oatly AB - Find Case Law - The National Archives LORD HAMBLEN AND LORD BURROWS (with whom Lord Hodge, Lord Briggs and Lord Stephens agree): The appellant, Oatly AB (“Oatly”), is a Swedish company whose business involves the manufacture and sale of oat-based food and drink products as alternatives to dairy products. The respondent, Dairy UK Ltd (“Dairy”), is the trade association for the UK dairy industry. In April 2021, the trade mark “POST MILK GENERATION” was registered by Oatly for use in relation to categories of oat-based food and drink (classes 29, 30 and 32) and for use in respect of T-shirts (class 25). In November 2021, Dairy applied for a declaration that, under section 3 of the Trade Marks Act 1994 (“the 1994 Act”), that registration was invalid. Dairy’s application succeeded before the hearing officer in the Intellectual Property Office (“IPO”) (other than in respect of T-shirts for which the application was refused because T-shirts were not agricultural products and therefore manifestly fell outside the scope of the relevant regulation relied on by Dairy). But her decision in respect of oat-based food and drink was appealed by Oatly (there was no cross-appeal by Dairy in respect of T-shirts) and overturned in the High Court by Richard Smith J who held that the registration was valid. His decision was, in turn, overturned by the Court of Appeal (Arnold, Snowden and Jeremy Baker LJJ). Oatly now appeals to the Supreme Court. The appeal concerns the proper interpretation of Parliament and Council Regulation (EU) No. 1308/2013 of 17 December 2013 establishing a common organisation of the markets in agricultural products (the “2013 Regulation”) that, amongst many other things, regulates the use of dairy terms, such as milk, cheese, and yogurt, in relation to the marketing of agricultural products. Point 5 in Part III of Annex VII referred to in Article 78 of the 2013 Regulation (“Point 5 of the 2013 Regulation”) provides that the “designations” of “milk” and “milk products” referred to in Points 1, 2 and 3 of Annex VII “may not be used for any product other than those referred to in that point”. The Court of Appeal held that the trade mark, as applied to oat-based food and drink, is a “designation” of milk which is prohibited. Oatly argues that the Court of Appeal was incorrect because “designation” concerns the name of the product, that the trade mark POST MILK GENERATION was not being used to name the product, and that, therefore, the trade mark does not fall foul of Point 5 of the 2013 Regulation. 8. Ground 1 of this appeal therefore focuses on the meaning of “designation” in the 2013 Regulation. More specifically, as formulated by the parties and refined by their submissions, the questions asked under Ground 1 are: what is the proper interpretation of the term “designation” in Article 78(2) and Part III of Annex VII of the 2013 Regulation; and does POST MILK GENERATION fall within the scope of Point 5 of the 2013 Regulation on the basis that it uses the term “milk” as a designation? Oatly further argues, and this concerns Ground 2 of this appeal, that, even if wrong on Ground 1, the Court of Appeal should have accepted that the trade mark is saved by the second limb of the proviso in Point 5 of the 2013 Regulation. Under the second limb, Point 5 does not apply to designations which “are clearly used to describe a characteristic quality of the product”. Oatly submits that POST MILK GENERATION does describe a characteristic quality of the registered goods (in classes 29, 30 and 32), namely that they are all milk-free. Ground 2 therefore turns on the meaning of the second limb of the proviso in Point 5 of the 2013 Regulation. More specifically, as formulated by the parties and refined by their submissions, the questions asked under Ground 2 are: what is the proper interpretation of the second limb of the proviso in Point 5; and is POST MILK GENERATION saved by that limb of the proviso on the basis that it is clearly being used to describe a characteristic quality of the contested products for which the trade mark is registered? 10. The answers to the questions posed rest on the correct interpretation of the relevant legislation. It is common ground that, subsequent to Brexit, the 2013 Regulation is “assimilated law” (see Retained EU Law (Revocation and Reform) Act 2023 section 5). It is now well-established that the modern approach to domestic statutory interpretation requires the court to ascertain the meaning of the words used, in the light of their context and the purpose of the provision(s). See, eg, R (Project for the Registration of Children as British Citizens) v Secretary of State for the Home Department [2022] UKSC 3; [2023] AC 255, paras 28–29; News Corp UK & Ireland Ltd v Revenue and Customs Comrs [2023] UKSC 7; [2024] AC 89, para 27; R (N3) v Secretary of State for the Home Department [2025] UKSC 6; [2025] AC 1473, para 62; Darwall v Dartmoor National Park Authority [2025] UKSC 20; [2025] AC 1292, para 15; X v Lord Advocate [2025] UKSC 44; [2026] 2 WLR 43, para 22. In interpreting assimilated law comprising legislation, it is appropriate to apply that modern approach to domestic statutory interpretation albeit that the EU origin of the legislation may be relevant in considering the context and purpose of the provision(s). Under section 3(4) of the 1994 Act, “A trade mark shall not be registered if or to the extent that its use is prohibited in the United Kingdom by any enactment or rule of law other than law relating to trade marks.” The relevant enactment in question (which, as has been said in para 10, is assimilated law) is the 2013 Regulation. We set out immediately below the material parts of the 2013 Regulation as amended (in minor respects, that are not directly relevant to the issues we have to decide) by the Common Organisation of the Markets in Agricultural Products Framework (Miscellaneous Amendments, etc) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (SI 2019/821). 12. The crucial Point 5 of the 2013 Regulation has been emphasised below by underlining. “Regulation (EU) No 1308/2013 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 17 December 2013 establishing a common organisation of the markets in agricultural products … [Recital] (76) For certain sectors and products, definitions, designations and sales descriptions are important elements for determining the conditions of competition. Therefore, it is appropriate to lay down definitions, designations and sales descriptions for those sectors and/or products, which should only be used in the Union for the marketing of products which comply with the corresponding requirements … Article 78 Definitions, designations and sales descriptions for certain sectors and products In addition, where relevant, to the applicable marketing standards, the definitions, designations and sales descriptions provided for in Annex VII shall apply to the following sectors or products: … The definitions, designations or sales descriptions provided for in Annex VII may be used in [Great Britain] only for the marketing of a product which conforms to the corresponding requirements laid down in that Annex … ANNEX VII DEFINITIONS, DESIGNATIONS AND SALES DESCRIPTION OF PRODUCTS REFERRED TO IN ARTICLE 78 For the purposes of this Annex, the ‘sale description’ means the name of the food, within the meaning of Article 17 of Regulation (EU) No 1169/2011 … PART III Milk and milk products ‘Milk’ means exclusively the normal mammary secretion obtained from one or more milkings without either addition thereto or extraction therefrom. However, the term ‘milk’ may be used: for milk treated without altering its composition or for milk the fat content of which is standardised under Part IV; in association with a word or words to designate the type, grade, origin and/or intended use of such milk or to describe the physical treatment or the modification in composition to which it has been subjected, provided that the modification is restricted to an addition and/or withdrawal of natural milk constituents. For the purposes of this Part, ‘milk products’ means products derived exclusively from milk, on the understanding that substances necessary for their manufacture may be added provided that those substances are not used for the purpose of replacing, in whole or in part, any milk constituent. The following shall be reserved exclusively for milk products. names within the meaning of Article 17 of Regulation (EU) No 1169/2011 actually used for milk products. The term ‘milk’ and the designations used for milk products may also be used in association with a word or words to designate composite products of which no part takes or is intended to take the place of any milk constituent and of which milk or a milk product is an essential part either in terms of quantity or for characterisation of the product. As regards milk, the animal species from which the milk originates shall be stated, if it is not bovine. The designations referred to in points 1, 2 and 3 may not be used for any product other than those referred to in that point. However, this provision shall not apply to the designation of products the exact nature of which is clear from traditional usage and/or when the designations are clearly used to describe a characteristic quality of the product. In respect of a product other than those described in points 1, 2 and 3 of this Part, no label, commercial document, publicity material or any form of advertising as defined in Article 2 of Council Directive 2006/114/EC or any form of presentation may be used which claims, implies or suggests that the product is a dairy product. However, in respect of a product which contains milk or milk products, the designation ‘milk’ or the designations referred to in the second subparagraph of points 2 of this Part may be used only to describe the basic raw materials and to list the ingredients in accordance with Regulation (EU) No 1169/2011.” 13. The importance of this Annex (Annex I to the Commission Decision 2010/791/EU of 20 December 2010 – “the 2010 Decision”) is that it lists the products referred to in what is now the proviso in Point 5 of the 2013 Regulation (which was previously in the second sub-paragraph of point III(1) of Annex XII to Council Regulation (EC) No 1234/2007). That list is directly relevant to Ground 2 in this appeal. It is not in dispute that this is assimilated law (although there is a question, not relevant to this appeal, as to how that list is being updated subsequent to Brexit). In so far as relevant, Annex I to the 2010 Decision reads as follows: “List of the products referred to in the second subparagraph of point III(1) of Annex XII to Regulation (EC) No 1234/2007 … Coconut milk ‘Cream …’ or ‘Milk …’ used in the description of a spirituous beverage not containing milk or other milk products or milk or milk product imitations (for example, cream sherry, milk sherry) … Cream filled biscuits (for example, custard cream, bourbon cream, raspberry cream biscuits, strawberry cream, etc.) Cream filled sweets or chocolates (for example, peppermint cream, raspberry cream, crème egg) … Creamed coconut and other similar fruit, nut and vegetable products where the term ‘creamed’ describes the characteristic texture of the product … Cream or creamed soups (for example, cream of tomato soup, cream of celery, cream of chicken, etc.)…” On the questions with which we are concerned, it is instructive to consider the reasoning of the IPO’s hearing officer and the courts below. The essential reasoning of Judi Pike, the IPO’s hearing officer (O/0049/23, 17 January 2023), was that the trade mark is invalid (other than as regards T-shirts) under section 3(4) of the 1994 Act because the trade mark contains the word “milk” and the goods (in classes 29, 30 and 32) are not milk. That is prohibited by Point 5 of the 2013 Regulation. In her words, at paras 26 and 28: “Milk is a designation in points 1, 2 and 3 of the Annex. Point 5 states that ‘milk’ cannot be used for products which are not milk … The wording of point 5 is strict. The use of ‘milk’ is prohibited for non-milk products under point 5 of the Annex, regardless of how the mark as a whole may be viewed by consumers, which is not a consideration under point 5.” She had earlier asserted, but without there being any apparent argument on this matter, that the second limb to the proviso in Point 5 did not apply because “the mark does not clearly describe a characteristic quality of the goods.” (para 21) 17. Although no longer in issue, the hearing officer decided that the trade mark would not have been invalid under section 3(3)(b) of the 1994 Act. That was because the mark did not constitute actual deceit nor a sufficiently serious risk of deception such that the behaviour of the average consumer would be materially affected. At para 33, she said: “the average consumer will view the mark as an ironic way of saying its goods have moved on from conventional milk and are for consumers of a ‘post-milk generation’; ie those who no longer consume dairy milk. The message is not difficult to receive for a member of the purchasing public that is reasonably well-informed and reasonably observant and circumspect, paying at least an average degree of attention to the purchase. They will not be in such a hurry that they only perceive the word ‘milk’, ignore the other two words, and assume they are buying dairy milk.” The IPO’s decision was overturned by Richard Smith J: [2023] EWHC 3204 (Ch). His reasoning was that the hearing officer had construed the prohibition in Point 5 too widely. That was because she had adopted too wide a meaning of “designation”. It was not the use of the term “milk” in marketing products that was prohibited. Rather it was the use of the term “milk” to identify products as being milk that was prohibited. In his words at para 39: “it is the use of the term ‘milk’ for products to identify them as being milk, not merely its use in their marketing, that constitutes their designation as such. In this case, the Mark was registered for a variety of goods in different classes and, although it may well have been used in their marketing, it does not purport to market them as any particular product, let alone as milk. Since the Mark does not designate those goods as ‘milk’, point 5 is not engaged and no question of the proviso to point 5 arises.” Richard Smith J’s judgment was overturned by the Court of Appeal: [2024] EWCA Civ 1453. The leading judgment was given by Arnold LJ with whom Jeremy Baker LJ agreed. Snowden LJ also agreed with Arnold LJ subject to one point on the proviso in Point 5, which did not affect the decision. Some of Arnold LJ’s reasoning is not relevant to this appeal because it is no longer being suggested by Oatly that a trade mark, because it is a trade mark, has some particular protection against the prohibition in Point 5. But on the questions that do arise on this appeal, Arnold LJ rejected Oatly’s submission that the 2013 Regulation should be given the same meaning as earlier versions, precisely because changes in the wording had been made. Central to his reasoning was that, while a “designation” includes a description of a product, it is not limited to a description of a product. In essence he accepted the reasoning of the IPO’s hearing officer that “milk” is a designation in Point 1 of Annex VII so that, by virtue of Point 5, it cannot be used in relation to any product which is not “milk” as defined in Point 1 (subject to the proviso in Point 5). As regards the proviso in Point 5, all three of the Court of Appeal judges agreed that that proviso did not save the trade mark because it did not clearly describe a characteristic quality of the goods in question. In Arnold LJ’s words at para 56: “I agree with the hearing officer that it would be understood as referring to potential consumers of the goods. It may be understood as alluding to the fact that the goods are non-dairy products, but it does not clearly describe any such characteristic.” On the proviso in Point 5, Snowden LJ said the following at para 77: “… I entirely agree with the critical point made by Lord Justice Arnold at para 56 above, that if Oatly was entitled to argue that the Trade Mark fell within the second limb of the exception in Point 5, its argument would nevertheless fail on the facts. That is because the Trade Mark ‘POST MILK GENERATION’ does not describe, clearly or at all, a characteristic quality of any of the products in classes 29, 30 and 32 in relation to which Oatly wishes to use it. Rather, as obviously implied by the use of the words ‘post’ and ‘generation’, the Trade Mark describes the age-related characteristic of a particular cohort of people which Oatly intends should buy or consume its products.” The disagreement between Arnold LJ and Jeremy Baker LJJ, on the one hand, and Snowden LJ on the other, was whether inclusion in the list of products set out in the 2010 Decision, which is indisputably required for the first limb of the proviso (concerning the designation of products the exact nature of which is clear from traditional usage), is also required in respect of the second limb (concerning describing a characteristic quality of the product). In obiter dicta, Arnold and Jeremy Baker LJJ thought that it was, whereas Snowden LJ thought that it was not. It is common ground between the parties to this appeal that Snowden LJ was correct on that point. 24. On Ground 1, Michael Edenborough KC, for Oatly, essentially submits that “designation” in Point 5 of the 2013 Regulation means the name of a product (or, more fully, the name used at all stages of marketing). As the product that we are here concerned with is food or drink, “designation”, according to Mr Edenborough, means the name of a food or drink. Milk, cream, butter, cheese, yogurt are all examples of designations (as would be lamb or beef in relation to meat) because they are all names of food or drink. In contrast, POST MILK GENERATION is not the name of a product. It does not name (or even describe) a food or drink. If one were to ask in respect of oat-based milk, what is that product? The answer, “It is post milk generation” would not answer the question because it would not name the product. The name of the product would be “oat-based milk” not “post milk generation”. It follows, according to this submission, that Point 5 of the 2013 Regulation does not prohibit using POST MILK GENERATION in respect of oat-based food and drink. Mr Edenborough submits that this “name of a product” meaning of “designation” is its natural meaning in the context of the 2013 Regulation and is also strongly supported by previous versions of the Regulation and by there being no indication that the 2013 Regulation was effecting a substantive change. He also relies on the fact that, in terms of purpose, it is no longer in dispute, following the factual findings of the IPO’s Hearing Officer, that consumers would not be deceived by the use of the trade mark POST MILK GENERATION. In contrast, Tom Moody-Stuart KC, for Dairy, submits, on Ground 1, that “designation” in Point 5 of the 2013 Regulation means any use of the term (here the term “milk”) in referring to a relevant product (ie food or drink). This accords with the natural meaning of the word “designation” in the context in which it is being used. It does not matter that POST MILK GENERATION is not, and is not being used as, the name of a product because “designation” has a wider meaning. The term “milk”, albeit in the composite phrase POST MILK GENERATION, cannot therefore be used to refer to oat-based food or drink. It can only be “used for” milk or milk products as referred to in Points 1, 2 and 3 in Part III of Annex VII. In terms of purpose, the legislation is concerned not only to protect consumers from being deceived but also sets out what are regarded as the rules of fair competition. The correct meaning of designation is therefore not linked to whether, or not, consumers would be deceived. On ground 2, Mr Edenborough argues that, even if he is wrong on Ground 1, so that POST MILK GENERATION is a prohibited designation under Point 5 of the 2013 Regulation, it is nevertheless saved by the second limb of the proviso in Point 5. That is because POST MILK GENERATION is clearly being used to describe a characteristic quality of the contested product, namely that it is milk-free. Therefore, POST MILK GENERATION used in relation to oat-based milk or oat-based food would be making clear that there is no milk in the product. In contrast, on ground 2, Mr Moody-Stuart submits that the second limb of the proviso in Point 5 of the 2013 Regulation does not save the use of POST MILK GENERATION because that is an ambiguous phrase that cannot be said to make clear that a characteristic quality of the contested product is that it is milk-free. Rather the trade mark is most obviously referring to the type of consumer (a younger generation) that is being targeted. So POST MILK GENERATION, where referring to oat-based food or drink, is not clearly being used to describe a characteristic quality of the product (ie it does not make clear that it is milk-free). Ground 1: what is the proper interpretation of the term “designation” in Point 5 of the 2013 Regulation; and does POST MILK GENERATION fall within the scope of Point 5 of the 2013 Regulation on the basis that it uses the term “milk” as a designation? We reject Mr Edenborough’s submission that “designation” in Point 5 of the 2013 Regulation means the name of a product so that the use of the term “milk” in the disputed trade mark is not prohibited. “Designation” or “designations” in Point 5 must be read alongside Point 2(a) and (b) where the word “names” is used and it naturally follows that they do not have the same meaning. Similarly, at the beginning of Annex VII, there is a reference to “sale description” as meaning “the name of the food” and again that suggests that designation does not have the same meaning as the name of a product. A similar point can be made about recital 76 and the heading to Annex VII in both of which the terms “designations and sales description” are used, thereby indicating that they have different meanings. In line with Mr Moody-Stuart’s submissions, the terms “designation” or “designations” in Point 5 on their natural meaning, viewed in the context of Annex VII, are referring to their use in respect of a food or drink rather than the naming of it. The designations referred to in Points 1, 2 and 3, including the term “milk”, may not be “used for” any product other than those so referred to. Oat-based food or drink is not referred to in Points 1, 2 and 3 and so the use of the term “milk” in respect of such food or drink is prohibited. The prohibition bites where the designation has been used for a relevant product, and it is not necessary that it has been used as the name of the product. That is a broad meaning which encompasses, but is wider than, and different from, the narrower “name of a product” meaning, argued for by Mr Edenborough. Taking into account recital 76, it is also clear that that wider meaning is consistent with the purpose of Point 5 which, in respect of milk as a product, is to set out fair conditions of competition. That purpose is distinct from protecting consumers from being deceived. It is no objection that the conditions of competition impose a strict prohibition in protecting the use of the term “milk”. This was very clearly and correctly stated by the IPO’s hearing officer at paras 26 and 28 (set out at para 15 above). 33. Mr Edenborough took us through a painstaking examination of previous versions of the 2013 Regulation (with a colour code to identify different, or the same, wording). He did so in order to show, in particular, that previous versions of what is now Point 5 had used the word “names” not “designations”. He then sought to show that the present wording was not heralded by any indication of a substantive change. We have found this exercise unhelpful. The legislation must be interpreted as it now stands and the present Point 5 uses the word “designation” which is to be contrasted with other references to the name of products. The provisions of legislation must be read in their particular context and it is therefore potentially misleading to look back at previous versions of legislation which are significantly different. While not deciding the point, which we regard as essentially irrelevant, we note that, in any event, Mr Moody-Stuart did not accept Mr Edenborough’s submission that POST MILK GENERATION would have been a valid trade mark under the pre-2013 versions of the Regulation. The appeal therefore fails on Ground 1. POST MILK GENERATION does fall within the scope of Point 5 of the 2013 Regulation on the basis that it uses the term “milk” as a designation. For completeness, we add three further points. First, there was some discussion at the hearing as to whether a hypothetical trade mark MILK-FREE used for oat-based food or drink would be prohibited. The Court of Appeal put this to one side saying that it did not need to be decided. In our view, in line with the broad meaning of “designation” that we consider is correct, and contrary to the submissions of Mr Edenborough, this would constitute a prohibited “designation” under Point 5. The question would then be whether that would be saved by the proviso in Point 5. Both parties accepted, and we agree, that it would be saved because it would fall within the second limb of the proviso (which we discuss further in paras 38–43 below) as clearly being used to describe a characteristic quality of the product - ie that it does not contain any milk. Secondly, we were supplied by the parties with additional legislative material that we have not so far mentioned, in particular Article 5 of Directive 2000/13/EC of 20 March 2000. The appellant also relied on Amendment 171 to the 2013 Regulation which was endorsed by the European Parliament in 2020 but was later abandoned and so never came into effect. In our view, none of that additional material takes matters any further in relation to the questions that need to be decided on this appeal. 37. Thirdly, there is no domestic case that is relevant to the questions with which we are here concerned. But while it is accepted that it is not directly in point, we were referred to the decision of the Court of Justice of the European Union in Case C-422/16 Verband Sozialer Wettbewerb eV v TofuTown.com GmbH (“TofuTown”). The CJEU, at para 20, summarised the question to be answered in that case as being whether Article 78(2) and Annex VII, Part III of the 2013 Regulation “must be interpreted as meaning that they preclude the use of the term ‘milk’ and the designations that the regulation reserves exclusively for milk products being used to designate a purely plant-based product in marketing or advertising even if those terms are expanded upon by clarifying or descriptive terms indicating the plant-based origin of the products concerned.” The Court’s answer to that question was “yes”. The factual background was that Tofutown was a company which produced and distributed vegetarian and vegan foods. These included products referred to as “Soyatoo tofu butter”, “plant cheese”, “veggie cheese” and “rice spray cream”. The CJEU held that those designations could not lawfully be used unless that product was listed in Annex I to the 2010 Decision (see para 13 above). But it is clear, and was not in dispute between the parties in this appeal, that the designations with which the TofuTown case was concerned were significantly different from POST MILK GENERATION. That is because they were using the word “milk” (or “cheese” or “cream”) as a name for the product. Mr Edenborough submitted that the CJEU was implying that “designation” was confined to its use as a name of the product but we disagree that one can draw that inference. The facts concerned a designation that named the product but the CJEU was not saying that the meaning of “designation” is so confined. Ground 2: what is the proper interpretation of the second limb of the proviso in Point 5; and is POST MILK GENERATION saved by that limb of the proviso on the basis that it is clearly being used to describe a characteristic quality of the contested products for which the trade mark is registered? Here the essential question is, on the assumption that the use of the trade mark POST MILK GENERATION to refer to oat-based food or drink is prohibited by Point 5 (as we have decided, on Ground 1, that it is), is it saved by the second limb of the proviso in Point 5? The parties on this appeal accepted that, in respect of the disagreement between Arnold and Jeremy Baker LJJ, on the one hand, and Snowden LJ on the other (see para 23 above), Snowden LJ’s view is correct. That is, the requirement of being listed (in Annex I to the 2010 Decision, set out at para 13 above) applies only to the first limb of the proviso in Point 5 and not to the second. For the purposes of this appeal, but without deciding the issue because we have not heard full argument on it - and because, as will become clear, our decision on the proviso does not depend on it - we shall also treat Snowden LJ’s view as correct. Mr Edenborough contends that the designation POST MILK GENERATION in relation to oat-based food or drink is being “clearly used to describe a characteristic quality of the product”, namely that it is milk-free. To come within the proviso, it is necessary that the designation is “clearly” being used for the requisite descriptive purpose. In agreement with the Court of Appeal, we consider that it is far from clear that that trade mark is describing any characteristic of the contested products. Rather, on its face, it is focussed on describing the targeted consumers and, in particular, those younger consumers who may be said to belong to a generation for whom there are, in contrast to past generations, widespread concerns about the production and consumption of milk. In so far as it is describing a characteristic quality of the product, it is doing so in an oblique and obscure way and is certainly not doing so “clearly”. Two further points support that conclusion. The first is that, even if POST MILK GENERATION were to be regarded as referring to the milk-free characteristic of the contested products, that characteristic is not being described “clearly”. In particular, does it mean that the product is entirely free of milk or only that the milk content is low? Take an analogous hypothetical trade mark, POST ALCOHOL GENERATION. If that designated a drink, it would not clearly indicate whether the drink is merely low alcohol or has no alcohol. The second point is that it is accepted that POST MILK GENERATION is valid in respect of T-shirts. That may be thought to indicate that that trade mark cannot be referring to a characteristic of the contested products because it would otherwise make little sense on a T-shirt. Yet it plainly does make sense when used on a T-shirt. That is precisely because it is most obviously describing a type of young consumer who might proudly wear a T-shirt proclaiming that he or she is a member of the anti-milk POST MILK GENERATION. But that has nothing to do with a characteristic quality of the T-shirt.

On TNA: From TNA: Dairy UK Ltd v Oatly AB

11.02.2026 11:21 👍 0 🔁 0 💬 0 📌 0
Emotional Perception AI Limited v Comptroller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks - Find Case Law - The National Archives View download options Emotional Perception AI Limited (Appellant) v Comptroller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks (Respondent) Interveners – (1) The Chartered Institute of Patent Attorneys, (2) IP Federation LORD BRIGGS AND LORD LEGGATT (with whom Lord Hamblen, Lord Stephens and Lord Kitchin agree): Introduction 1. This appeal is about whether it is possible to patent a particular type of what may loosely be called artificial intelligence, specifically that which consists of, resides in, or is centred around, an artificial neural network (“ANN”). Emotional Perception AI Ltd, the appellant and applicant for a patent, claims to have invented a system or method which uses an ANN to replicate the similarities and differences which a human being might subjectively perceive between different files of information by reference entirely to objectively measurable physical properties of those files. The commercial purpose of the system or method is to enable a person who likes or is interested in a particular media file (which might be a music track, a video or a text) to obtain the recommendation of a file calculated to elicit a similar emotional response. Anyone who regularly obtains news items from a mobile phone, or watches films on a modern television, or uses a music streaming service, will appreciate that recommendation services of this type are already widely available. But the applicant says that its invention enables that service to be provided more quickly and simply and to make better recommendations than anything else currently available. It will assist in understanding the issues in this appeal to provide an outline description of an ANN, the system or method which is the subject of the patent application and the principal issues in dispute. It will be necessary to elaborate upon aspects of this outline later, but what follows is intended to serve as a general introduction. Basic nature of an ANN An artificial neural network or ANN is, as its name implies, a network of artificial neurons, loosely akin to the neurons in a human brain. These “neurons” are nodes arranged in layers, with each neuron, and each layer, connected to others. Data presented to the first (input) layer of neurons are processed through each layer in turn until the final (output) layer of the network generates an output. The neurons in a layer below the input layer will each receive inputs from one or more neurons in the layer above. Each input value to a neuron is assigned a separate weight. The weighted input values are aggregated together and adjusted with a bias. A mathematical function (usually a non-linear function such as the sigmoid function), known as an “activation function”, is applied to this aggregated value to generate the neuron’s output value. That value is then transmitted as an input to each connected neuron in the next layer. An important feature of an ANN is its capacity to engage in machine learning: that is, it can be trained to perform a task, and to improve the quality of its performance, by an iterative process of adjustment. The training process typically involves repeatedly inputting a set of data for which desired (or target) outputs have been independently identified. On each iteration the output generated by the ANN is compared with the target output using a “loss function” to measure the difference (or degree of error) between the actual output and the target output. This information is then used to adjust the variable parameters of the network (the weights and biases) to reduce the likelihood of future error. A commonly used technique is called backpropagation. In essence this involves calculating how much each weight and bias contributed to the total error and adjusting the weights and biases accordingly. Once the performance of the ANN is perceived to have been optimised by this training process, the ANN is ready to use for its intended task. At this stage the weights and biases are frozen, so that they are static and no longer subject to adjustment. New data (not included in the training set) can then be presented to the ANN, which will process the data and generate an output applying the weights and biases arrived at through training. As discussed in more detail later, an ANN can be implemented on a conventional digital computer or on a dedicated piece of hardware which has a particular network architecture embedded in it. The claimed invention There is nothing new about the concept of an ANN. It dates back in simple form to the 1950s. Machine learning is a more recent phenomenon, but the applicant does not claim to have invented that. Rather its claimed invention lies in the system and method by which an ANN is trained to replicate the subjective or emotional human perception of the degree of similarity or difference between files of the same genre (music or text for example) by reference to objectively measurable physical properties of the files. The two relevant claims (1 and 4) are set out in the Appendix to this judgment. Claim 1 is for a system for providing file recommendations. Claim 4 is for a method for providing the same recommendations. The analysis in the lower courts focussed on claim 4, and we will follow the same approach. In outline, the method involves training an ANN using a series of pairs of files as training data. The files in each pair have been independently compared with each other using two different measures. One is a measure of their semantic similarity derived from how they have been described by human beings in words. The other is a measure of their physical similarity. Using music files as an example, at a very basic level one file in a pair might be described as happy and exciting and the other as sad and relaxing, although the descriptions are usually more complex than that. Using a natural language processing system, the textual descriptions are given numerical expression as vectors in what is described as the semantic space. The semantic similarity or difference between the two files is represented by the distance between the two vectors (referred to as the “separation distance”) in the semantic space. This analysis is in fact performed by an ANN, but it is not the ANN the subject of the claims. The same pairs of files are separately analysed by measuring physical properties, such as (in music files) tempo, tone, volume and rhythm, and converting these into vectors in a notional “property space”. The separation distance between the two files in the property space is then measured. The next step is what the judge and the Court of Appeal (at para 23 of the judgment) described as the significant “trick” in the invention. The ANN which is the subject of the claims is trained to make the distances between the pairs of files in the property space align more closely with the distances between those pairs in the semantic space. This is done using the technique of machine learning described above. In the data set used for training, the separation distance between pairs of files in the property space is compared with the separation distance between the same pairs of files in the semantic space to measure the extent of the difference or “error”. The internal weights and biases within the ANN are then adjusted using backpropagation to eliminate or reduce that error by iterative review of the same pairs of files. The aim is to make the distance between file vectors in the property space correspond as closely as possible to the distance between the vectors for the same file in the semantic space. Once the training process has been carried out to the extent desired to optimise the performance of the ANN, the weights and biases in the ANN are frozen. The ANN is now ready to be used to analyse the physical properties of (say) a music track presented to it and attribute a vector to the track. This vector can then be compared with the vectors of other tracks in a database from which recommendations are to be drawn. Recommendations are made by identifying tracks with proximate vectors. The comparison is made without recourse to any semantic comparisons. The ANN has been trained to measure similarities and differences between files and to identify music to which a human being would give a semantically similar description of their emotional response, but solely by reference to the physical properties of the files. The law and the issues The availability of a patent for an invention is governed in the United Kingdom by the Patents Act 1977, which aimed (among other things) to bring UK patent law into conformity with the provisions of the European Patent Convention (the “EPC”). Section 130(7) of the 1977 Act declares in terms that specified sections of the Act (including those with which this appeal is concerned) “are so framed as to have, as nearly as practicable, the same effects in the United Kingdom as the corresponding provisions of the European Patent Convention … [and two other Conventions] have in the territories to which those Conventions apply.” In these circumstances we will adopt the same approach as the Court of Appeal in the leading case of Aerotel Ltd v Telco Holdings Ltd [2006] EWCA Civ 1371; [2007] Bus LR 634; [2007] RPC 7 (“Aerotel”) of working directly from the underlying source, without troubling with the minor (and immaterial) differences in wording between the two texts. 14. This appeal is mainly concerned with the interpretation and application of section 1 of the 1977 Act, for which the source provision is article 52 of the EPC. In its amended form article 52 provides (in the English version of its text) as follows: “Patentable inventions European patents shall be granted for any inventions, in all fields of technology, provided that they are new, involve an inventive step and are susceptible of industrial application. The following in particular shall not be regarded as inventions within the meaning of paragraph 1: schemes, rules and methods for performing mental acts, playing games or doing business, and programs for computers; Paragraph 2 shall exclude the patentability of the subject-matter or activities referred to therein only to the extent to which a European patent application or European patent relates to such subject-matter or activities as such.” (emphasis added) 15. The applicant has thus far failed to obtain a patent for its claimed invention on the ground that it falls foul of the exclusion from patentability of “programs for computers … as such” specified by the combination of article 52(2)(c) and (3) of the EPC, loosely replicated but with no intentionally different meaning in section 1(2)(c) of the 1977 Act. The Hearing Officer in the UK Intellectual Property Office (the “UKIPO”) rejected the application on this basis. On appeal to the High Court, the judge (Sir Anthony Mann) allowed the applicant’s appeal, holding that an ANN is not a program for a computer at all so that the exclusion has no application; and that, even if that is wrong, the subject matter of the invention is not excluded: [2023] EWHC 2948 (Ch); [2024] Bus LR 14; [2024] RPC 2. The Court of Appeal (Birss LJ, with Arnold and Nicola Davies LJJ agreeing) allowed an appeal by the Comptroller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks and restored the decision of the Hearing Officer that the claimed invention is excluded from patentability: [2024] EWCA Civ 825; [2024] Bus LR 1589; [2024] RPC 25. The Hearing Officer and the courts below reached their differing conclusions as to patentability by following the established guidance on the interpretation and application of article 52 of the EPC given by the Court of Appeal in Aerotel. No argument was advanced at any stage before the appeal to this court that this guidance should not be followed. 17. Aerotel was decided at a time when, in the view of the Court of Appeal, the approach to be adopted in applying article 52 had not yet been settled at the level of the Board of Appeal of the European Patent Office (the “EPO”). Various different approaches had been adopted by different panels of the Board of Appeal, some of which appeared to be irreconcilable with others. It was therefore legitimate for the English courts to form their own view on those matters, rather than follow EPO jurisprudence, until the position had been clarified by a decision of an Enlarged Board of Appeal. But Jacob LJ (giving the judgment of the court) warned in Aerotel, at para 29, that, if and when an Enlarged Board did rule on the question, the approach in the UK might have to be reconsidered, if necessary by means of a leap-frog appeal to the Supreme Court. The Court of Appeal even went so far as to suggest, at para 76 of the judgment, questions which might usefully be asked of an Enlarged Board, starting with: “What is the correct approach to adopt in determining whether an invention relates to subject matter that is excluded under Art.52?” In March 2021, an Enlarged Board did for the first time rule on the interpretation of article 52 in Bentley Systems (UK) Ltd/Pedestrian Simulation (Decision G1/19) [2021] EPOR 30 (“G1/19”). This decision approved earlier dicta of the EPO Board of Appeal to the effect that the approach endorsed in Aerotel was not a good faith implementation of article 52, was incompatible with it and was based upon a misunderstanding of the meaning of the word “invention” as used in the EPC. The Enlarged Board went on to lay down an approach to the interpretation and application of article 52 which had been expressly rejected in Aerotel. Accordingly, as Jacob LJ had foreseen might happen, the occasion has now arisen for this court to consider whether Aerotel adopts a correct interpretation of article 52 or an appropriate procedure for its implementation. That gives rise to the first issue arising on this appeal (“issue 1”). 19. As Brian Nicholson KC, leading counsel for the respondent Comptroller General was at pains to point out, it would not be enough for this court merely to rule (if so persuaded) that Aerotel was wrong and should not be followed. All the officers in the UKIPO and, in all probability, most patent lawyers in the UK have been trained or become accustomed to applying the Aerotel methodology as a matter of course, and would need to be told what different approach should now be followed, to the extent that the facts of, and issues raised by, this appeal make it possible or appropriate for this court to do so. This is not as straightforward as just saying that courts in the UK should now follow G1/19. The guidance which the Enlarged Board laid down or approved in that case contains an undifferentiated mixture of matters which may fairly be said to have been dictated by the Enlarged Board’s interpretation of article 52 and matters which simply reflect current EPO practice, procedure and methodology. The latter may not be mandated by an interpretation of the EPC, and neither the UKIPO nor the UK courts are bound to apply EPO practice and procedures, or even methodologies. As set out at paras 25-67 below, our conclusion is that the Aerotel approach should not be followed, in the light of G1/19, and that the UK should adopt the same interpretation of article 52 as the Enlarged Board. For reasons that we will explain, this does not in our view require UK courts to change their approach to the analysis of what amounts to an inventive step although it may require some modification. This is in a sense a preliminary issue, since a correct interpretation of article 52 affects the approach to the other issues, all of which have thus far been decided by the Hearing Officer and the courts below by applying Aerotel. The remaining issues on this appeal concern whether the claimed invention falls within the exclusion from patentability of “programs for a computer … as such”. At its highest the applicant’s case is that an ANN is not and does not involve a program for a computer at all. This is the subject of issue 2. The applicant’s alternative case is that in any event, as the first instance judge Sir Anthony Mann concluded, the claims in the application are not for a program for a computer as such. If either submission is correct, it is decisive of this appeal, because it is only the application of the computer program exclusion which has thus far been held to prevent the grant of the sought-after patent. We have concluded that the applicant’s primary case should be rejected and that ANNs of the kind with which this appeal is concerned (including therefore the ANN which is the subject of the claims) are “programs for computers” within the meaning of article 52(2)(c). Our reasons are set out in paras 68-96 below. That conclusion makes it necessary to decide whether the claimed invention is a program for a computer “as such”. It follows from our answer to issue 1, and our adoption of the EPO Enlarged Board’s interpretation of article 52, that the answer to this question is “no” just because the invention involves a computer (and other hardware). We discuss whether we are in a position to go further in examining the implications of this interpretation of article 52 but explain why we have concluded that we should not venture far in this regard. Issue 1: Should Aerotel no longer be followed? 25. In Aerotel the Court of Appeal considered the previous UK and EPO case law on the application of article 52(2) and identified three different approaches which had been adopted. These were summarised, at para 26, as follows: Ask whether the inventive step resides only in the contribution of excluded matter – if yes, Art 52(2) applies. … Ask whether the invention as defined in the claim makes a technical contribution to the known art – if no, Art 52(2) applies. A possible clarification (at least by way of exclusion) of this approach is to add the rider that novel or inventive purely excluded matter does not count as a ‘technical contribution’. … Ask whether the claim involves the use of or is to a piece of physical hardware, however mundane (whether a computer or a pencil and paper). If yes, Art 52(2) does not apply. …” The Court of Appeal noted that the third, “any hardware” approach appeared to have three variants, reflected in a trio of EPO Board of Appeal cases: PBS Partnership/Controlling pension benefits system (Decision T 931/95) [2002] EPOR 522 (“Pension Benefits”); Hitachi/Auction method (Decision T 258/03) [2004] EPOR 548 (“Hitachi ”); and Microsoft/Clipboard formats I (Decision T 424/03) [2006] EPOR 414 (“Microsoft/Data Transfer”). Nonetheless they all shared the approach that a claim involving any hardware is not excluded by article 52(2). 27. The Court of Appeal was scathing about the “any hardware” approach. It was said, at para 26(3), to have been specifically rejected by the previous decision of the Court of Appeal in Gale’s Application [1991] RPC 305 and, in any event, to be plainly wrong (para 27) on the ground that it would fail to exclude claims to a new story in a book or to a new music track on a CD player - examples of excluded matter presented on hardware. The solution to that problem adopted by the EPO in Pension Benefits and Hitachi (treating the excluded matter as part of the prior art at the inventive step stage) was described as “not intellectually honest”. Added to that, the variants of the “any hardware” approach were said to be clearly in conflict with each other (para 28). It was also said, at para 30, that the trio of cases were based upon an assumption that the various excluded categories in article 52(2) all had a common factor of being limited to something abstract or intangible, which the Court of Appeal considered to be mistaken. 28. The Court of Appeal in Aerotel would have preferred to adopt the contribution approach: that is, if the inventive step resides only in the contribution of excluded matter, then article 52(2) applies to defeat the claim. They said, at para 32: “Patents are essentially about information as to what to make or do. If all the patentee has taught new is something about an excluded category, then it makes sense for the exclusion to apply.” But they regarded themselves as bound by UK precedent (Merrill Lynch’s Application [1989] RPC 561, Gale, and Fujitsu Ltd’s Application [1997] RPC 608) to apply what they called “the technical effect approach with the rider” (para 38). This was (see the summary quoted at para 25 above) to ask whether the invention as defined in the claim makes a technical contribution to the known art, with the rider that novel or inventive purely excluded matter does not count as a technical contribution. If the answer is “no”, then article 52(2) applies. The Court of Appeal went on, at paras 40 and 48-49, to lay down the following four step structured approach to the application of article 52(2): check whether the actual or alleged contribution is actually technical in nature. The Court of Appeal added some commentary on these steps at paras 42 to 47. The following points deserve notice. First, step 2 (identify the contribution) was said to involve asking what, as a matter of substance rather than form, the inventor has really added to human knowledge (para 43). While acknowledging that at the application stage the search might have to be for the alleged contribution, the Court of Appeal nonetheless said that it was the actual contribution that really mattered (para 44). Step 3 (asking whether the contribution is solely of excluded matter) was described as “merely an expression of the ‘as such’ qualification of Art 52(3)” (para 45). Finally, it was said that step 4 “may not be necessary because the third step should have covered that”. But it was said to be required by Merrill Lynch. Background to G1/19 31. It is now necessary to spell out in a little detail the approach to the interpretation and application of article 52(2) approved in the decision of the EPO Enlarged Board in G1/19. It is common ground that the Enlarged Board approved an “any hardware” approach, meaning that if the subject matter of the claim involves the use of any hardware, then article 52(2) is at least prima facie inapplicable. But the Comptroller General submits that “any hardware” is not an approach which deals comprehensively with the effect of article 52(2). It is said that what the Enlarged Board really approved was a combination of “any hardware” and the principles laid down by the Board, before Aerotel, in Comvik GSM AB (Decision T 641/00) [2004] EPOR 10 (“Comvik”). To address that submission, and also to see how the EPO has reacted to Aerotel, it is necessary to look both at Comvik itself, and at another decision of the EPO Board of Appeal approved in G1/19, namely Duns Licensing Associates (Decision T 154/04) [2004] EPOR 10 (“Duns”). 32. Comvik (decided in September 2002) concerned the requirement for an inventive step, mentioned in article 52(1) but dealt with in more detail in article 56. Article 56 provides (in its English text) that: “An invention shall be considered as involving an inventive step if, having regard to the state of the art, it is not obvious to a person skilled in the art …” In Comvik the Board of Appeal examined how the by then established approach in the EPO to dealing with inventive step known as the “problem and solution method” should be applied to mixed claims: that is, claims including both technical and non-technical features. What the Board decided is well summarised in the headnote as follows: An invention consisting of a mixture of technical and non-technical features and having technical character as a whole is to be assessed with respect to the requirement of inventive step by taking account of all those features which contribute to said technical character whereas features making no such contribution cannot support the presence of inventive step. Although the technical problem to be solved should not be formulated to contain pointers to the solution or partially anticipate it, merely because some feature appears in the claim does not automatically exclude it from appearing in the formulation of the problem. In particular where the claim refers to an aim to be achieved in a non-technical field, this aim may legitimately appear in the formulation of the problem as part of the framework of the technical problem that is to be solved, in particular as a constraint that has to be met.” 33. The context of this holding is that the Board of Appeal recognised that the general principles reflected in the EPC require patents to be available for inventions “in all fields of technology” and that “technical character is a sine qua non for an invention in the sense of the EPC”: para 3 of the reasons. Nonetheless claims can qualify as an invention even if they contain predominantly non-technical features. This is an inevitable consequence of the “any hardware” approach to article 52(2): see para 4 of the reasons. The “problem and solution” approach is introduced at para 5 of the reasons as a method or test developed by the Boards of Appeal for meeting the requirements of article 56. In essence it involves identifying, by reference to the closest prior art in the technical field of the invention, a technical problem which the invention claims to solve, and then assessing whether the technical feature(s) which form the claimed solution could be derived by the skilled person in that field in an obvious manner from the state of the art. This method is not described as the only legitimate test, or one dictated by the true interpretation of the EPC. 34. In Duns (decided in November 2006) the Board of Appeal had an opportunity to comment on Aerotel. The gist of the Board’s reasoning was that: (i) the four conditions of patentability set out in article 52(1) - invention, novelty, inventive step and susceptibility to industrial application - are separate, independent requirements; (ii) an implicit requisite of an invention is that it should have technical character; (iii) article 52(2) does not exclude any subject matter having technical character even if it is related to any of the (non-technical) items specified in article 52(2), since these items are only excluded “as such” (see article 52(3)); (iv) the requirement of technical character implicit in an invention is an absolute requirement that does not imply any novel and inventive contribution relative to the prior art; and (v) the requirement that the claim discloses an invention must be satisfied before the other requirements for patentability become relevant (as recognised by Mustill LJ in Genentech Inc’s Patent [1989] RPC 147, 262). The Board concluded, at para 12: “These views are entirely consistent with the legal concept of ‘invention’ applied by the Board in the context of Art 52(1) to (3) EPC, which should not be mixed up with the layman’s ordinary understanding of invention as a novel, and often also inventive contribution to the known art. Using these two very different concepts of invention in one breath would be a legal fallacy.” The Board then directly addressed Aerotel and said, at para 12, that the “technical effect approach” endorsed in that case “seems to be rooted in this second ordinary meaning of the term invention, a practice which might be understandable ‘given the shape of the old law’ … but which is not consistent with a good-faith interpretation of the European Patent Convention in accordance with Art 31 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties of 1969”. The Board reasoned that any reference to the prior art in the context of article 52(2) would lead to insurmountable difficulties and could not have been intended by the parties to the Convention, as the concept of the “state of the art” in the EPC is a complex one, finely tuned by the combination of articles 54 to 56, and there is no definition of it capable of being applied in the context of article 52(2). Therefore, both the “contribution” and “technical effect” approaches which involved such reference should be abandoned. At para 13 the Board gave a further reason why the “technical effect with rider” approach adopted in Aerotel was irreconcilable with the EPC. It said that the presupposition that “novel and inventive purely excluded matter does not count as a ‘technical contribution’” has no basis in the Convention. In fact, a purely excluded (non-technical) matter can count as a contribution to the technical character of an invention. It is only to the extent that non-technical features do not interact with technical features to produce a technical effect that they cannot establish novelty or inventive step. The Board said that the judgment in Aerotel missed this point when making the assertion that the deemed inclusion of non-technical features in the prior art was not intellectually honest. The Board regarded its interpretation of the EPC and the case law of the EPO as so clear that reference to the Enlarged Board was unnecessary. It took almost a further 15 years before these issues finally reached the Enlarged Board in G1/19. The questions referred were concerned with inventive step and the problem and solution method of addressing it, in the context of computer-implemented simulations. But the Enlarged Board went out of its way to review and affirm the earlier jurisprudence of the Boards of Appeal, specifically by endorsing the Comvik approach and the principles set out in Duns. The Enlarged Board, at para 28, gave its unqualified imprimatur to the “any hardware” approach, stating that: “A method involving technical means is an invention within the meaning of Art 52(1) EPC.” It followed that “a claim directed to a computer-implemented invention avoids exclusion under Art 52 EPC merely by referring to the use of a computer, a computer-readable storage medium or other technical means”. 39. The reasoning in Duns was approved by the Enlarged Board’s adoption, word for word, of seven principles set out in that decision (“the Duns principles”), as follows: Article 52(1) EPC sets out four requirements to be fulfilled by a patentable invention: there must be an invention, and if there is an invention, it must satisfy the requirements of novelty, inventive step, and industrial applicability. Having technical character is an implicit requisite of an ‘invention’ within the meaning of Article 52(1) EPC (requirement of ‘technicality’). Article 52(2) EPC does not exclude from patentability any subject matter or activity having technical character, even if it is related to the items listed in this provision since these items are only excluded ‘as such’ (Article 52(3) EPC). The four requirements - invention, novelty, inventive step, and susceptibility of industrial application - are essentially separate and independent criteria of patentability, which give rise to concurrent objections. Novelty, in particular, is not a requisite of an invention within the meaning of Article 52(1) EPC, but a separate requirement of patentability. For examining patentability of an invention in respect of a claim, the claim must be construed to determine the technical features of the invention, i.e. the features which contribute to the technical character of the invention. It is legitimate to have a mix of technical and ‘non-technical’ features appearing in a claim, in which the non-technical features may even form a dominating part of the claimed subject matter. Novelty and inventive step, however, can be based only on technical features, which thus have to be clearly defined in the claim. Non-technical features, to the extent that they do not interact with the technical subject matter of the claim for solving a technical problem, i.e. non-technical features ‘as such’, do not provide a technical contribution to the prior art and are thus ignored in assessing novelty and inventive step. For the purpose of the problem-and-solution approach, the problem must be a technical problem which the skilled person in the particular technical field might be asked to solve at the relevant priority date. The technical problem may be formulated using an aim to be achieved in a non-technical field, and which is thus not part of the technical contribution provided by the invention to the prior art. This may be done in particular to define a constraint that has to be met (even if the aim stems from an a posteriori knowledge of the invention).” Even though the criticisms of the judgment in Aerotel made in Duns were not expressly endorsed by the Enlarged Board, it must be taken by implication to have adopted them by its wholesale approval of the summary of the Duns principles set out above. The contribution made by Comvik as the source of Duns principles (F) and (G) was also endorsed by the full citation of its headnote (which we have quoted at para 32 above), and by referring to the principles set out in its headnote as “the Comvik approach”. 42. The Enlarged Board went on, at paras 32-33, to make some additional comments on principle (F) and how technical and “non-technical” features can interact: In this context, the term ‘non-technical features’ refers to features which, on their own, would be considered ‘non-inventions’ under Article 52(2) EPC. Whether such features contribute to the technical character of the invention has to be assessed in the context of the invention as a whole. 33. The same manner of assessment applies to features which can be considered to be technical per se: they do not necessarily contribute to the technical solution of a technical problem. An invention may have (i) technical features which contribute, (ii) technical features which do not contribute, (iii) non-technical features which contribute and (iv) non-technical features which do not contribute to the technical solution of a technical problem and thereby potentially to the presence or not of an inventive step. While (i) and (iv) are self-evident, features according to (iii) have been established by the case law described above (principle (F): non-technical features interacting with the technical subject matter of the claim for solving a technical problem). Case (ii) occurs if features that per se qualify as technical cannot contribute to inventive activity because they have no technical function within the context of the claimed invention. Even before the Comvik approach was established, technically non-functional modifications (even if they could per se be considered technical) could be considered irrelevant in the assessment of inventive step.” (citations omitted) 43. The Enlarged Board added this commentary on the steps of particular relevance to this appeal, at paras 37-39, under the heading “Two-hurdle approach”: To be patentable, any invention has to pass the eligibility test under Art 52 EPC (i.e. it must not fall under the ‘non-inventions’ mentioned there) and also fulfil the other criteria listed in that article (novelty, inventive step, etc). For computer-implemented inventions, the twofold test for patent eligibility and for inventive step (using the Comvik criteria) is often referred to as the ‘two-hurdle approach’. It may be that a shift has taken place in the relative level of each of these two hurdles in the sense that it has become easier to clear the eligibility hurdle of Art 52 EPC … and more difficult to pass the inventive step hurdle of Art 56 EPC. As result of this shift, it could be said that there is now in effect an additional intermediate step to assess the ‘eligibility of the feature to contribute to inventive step’. The two-hurdle approach for computer-implemented inventions actually entails three steps. Establishing whether a feature contributes to the technical character of the invention constitutes an intermediate step between assessing (i) the invention’s eligibility under Art 52 EPC, and (ii) whether the invention is based on an inventive step vis-à-vis the closest prior art. This additional intermediate step serves as a filter for features contributing to a technical solution of a technical problem in view of the closest prior art. Only those distinguishing features can contribute to inventive step.” Status of EPO case law The starting point in any analysis of the question whether the Aerotel approach should now be treated as overtaken by G1/19 lies in the principles which courts in the UK have adopted in deciding how closely to follow the case law of the EPO on the meaning and effect of the EPC. On this, the authoritative dicta speak with one voice. These courts are not strictly bound by decisions of the Boards of Appeal of the EPO, even of the Enlarged Board, but they should respect and follow the Enlarged Board’s decisions and any uniform jurisprudence of the Boards of Appeal unless convinced that they are wrong or beyond the ambit of reasonable difference of opinion. This is essentially for good policy reasons. The national courts of all the contracting states should seek a uniform interpretation of the EPC, and of domestic legislation passed to implement it. 45. In Conor Medsystems Inc v Angiotech Pharmaceuticals Inc [2008] UKHL 49; [2008] RPC 28, para 3, Lord Hoffmann said that “when the question is one of principle, it is desirable that so far as possible there should be uniformity in the way the national courts and the EPO interpret the [EPC]”. In Generics (UK) Ltd v H Lundbeck A/S [2009] UKHL 12; [2009] Bus LR 828; [2009] RPC 13, para 35, Lord Walker of Gestingthorpe referred to “the importance of UK patent law aligning itself, so far as possible, with the jurisprudence of the EPO (and especially decisions of its Enlarged Boards of Appeal)”. In Human Genome Sciences Inc v Eli Lilly & Co [2011] UKSC 51; [2012] RPC 6 Lord Neuberger of Abbotsbury MR gave a judgment (with which all the Justices agreed) in which he stressed the importance of generally following the Board’s jurisprudence. He said, at para 83: “In all cases, however, the EPO and each national court are, of course, applying the principles contained in the EPC. It is plainly appropriate in principle, and highly desirable in practice, that all these tribunals interpret the provisions of the EPC in the same way.” “… where the Board has adopted a consistent approach to an issue in a number of decisions, it would require very unusual facts to justify a national court not following that approach.” 46. This is not to say that decisions of the EPO Board are binding on UK courts. In Human Genome Sciences, para 87, Lord Neuberger also observed that a national court may think it right not to apply the reasoning in a particular Board decision which it considers may take the law in an inappropriate direction, misapplies previous EPO jurisprudence, or fails to take a relevant argument into account; and that “[w]hile consistency of approach is important, there has to be room for dialogue between a national court and the EPO”. Perhaps the most memorable dictum on this subject is that of Jacob LJ in Actavis UK Ltd v Merck &Co Inc [2008] EWCA Civ 444; [2009] 1 WLR 1186, para 48: “In saying our courts would and should normally follow the settled jurisprudence of the European Patent Office it should be understood, of course, that they are not bound do so. In the unlikely event that we are convinced that the commodore is steering the convoy towards the rocks we can steer our ship away.” 47. Where there is an apparent conflict between the settled jurisprudence of the EPO and a prior decision of the Court of Appeal, all English courts below the Supreme Court face the difficulty that the established rules of precedent in the domestic courts do not easily accommodate the policy and principled reasons for following the EPO. This problem is considered at length in Symbian Ltd v Comptroller General of Patents [2008] EWCA Civ 1066; [2009] Bus LR 607; [2009] RPC 1, paras 33-36. It was no doubt for this reason that in Aerotel itself Jacob LJ advised that, in the event of a relevant decision of the Enlarged Board taking a different view from the Court of Appeal, the matter might best be addressed by a leap-frog appeal to this court. In the event, the decision of the Enlarged Board in G1/19 has not led to a leap-frog appeal, but the conflict between that decision and the guidance given in Aerotel was not made the subject of any submissions in the courts below. Whether or not it would have been open to the Court of Appeal to depart from Aerotel, if persuaded that it is plainly inconsistent with G1/19, this court does not face any such difficulty, being of course free to overrule previous decisions of the Court of Appeal. That does not mean that this court should simply ignore the case law of the UK courts, in particular where a particular approach to the EPC has become settled English law up to the level of the Court of Appeal. That will have engendered a particular way of addressing patent problems by practitioners, judges and officers of the UKIPO. In such a situation, it will be necessary to take into account, as counsel for the Comptroller General rightly urged us to do, the potentially disruptive effect of a change to follow the EPO. Nonetheless the applicable principles are clear, and the fact that a change may be disruptive cannot by itself justify maintaining an idiosyncratic approach which is inconsistent with established jurisprudence of the EPO. At the same time there is a real difference between adhering loyally to the authority of the EPO on matters of interpretation of the EPC and slavishly following EPO practice in terms of its day to day application. There may be a range of different methods and procedures for implementing the Convention, once its meaning and effect have been determined. This is of particular importance in the present appeal, on the question whether adopting the EPO’s interpretation of article 52(2) and (3) and what is to be regarded as an invention also requires UK courts to adopt the problem and solution approach of the EPO to the resolution of issues about inventive step or obviousness. This court thought not in Actavis Group PTC EHF v ICOS Corpn [2019] UKSC 15; [2019] Bus LR 1318; [2019] RPC 9, para 93. That was before the decision in G1/19 but, as will appear, we consider that the view taken in Actavis v ICOS continues to hold good. It is convenient first to consider the main submissions made on behalf of the Comptroller General for continuing to follow the four-step Aerotel approach (set out at para 29 above). The first is that we have not been pointed to a single case in which it is said that applying the Duns principles endorsed by the Enlarged Board in G1/19 rather than the Aerotel approach would have led to a different outcome. The interveners have asserted that some cases would have been differently decided but have provided no details. Thus it is said that to reject the Aerotel approach without any evidence that this would make any difference to outcomes would be to cause, or at least risk, a major disruption to the work of the UKIPO without any good reason for doing so. 51. We consider that this submission approaches the problem from the wrong end of the telescope and reverses what ought at least to be the persuasive burden of proof. The grant of patents in the UK is regulated by the Patents Act 1977. That is the law which must be followed. The relevant provisions of the Act are to be interpreted as implementing the corresponding provisions of the EPC, here article 52, and the decisions of the Enlarged Board of the EPO about the meaning of those provisions should be followed unless there is a compelling reason not to do so. Thus, unless we are persuaded that the approach to the meaning and application of article 52(2) endorsed in G1/19 is based upon a misinterpretation of the EPC, or is irreconcilable with the EPC, or falls short of a good faith application of article 52, then considerations of consistency and comity require a national court to follow it. It is not for a party that argues for alignment with the EPO’s interpretation of the EPC to show that such alignment will produce a different outcome in particular cases. Nor, even if it could confidently be done, can a party seeking to persevere with a discordant approach obtain the court’s approval to do so by proving that the current habitual non-compliance with the EPO’s approach makes no difference to outcomes. The infinite variety of subject-matter of patent applications makes it practically impossible to be sure whether a departure from the Aerotel approach will or will not affect outcomes. If it does, then justice to those affected by the difference requires the necessary change to be made. If it does not, then no harm will have been done (beyond the need for some re-training) by a determination to comply with the law. And a lack of demonstrably different outcomes will at least mitigate the problems arising from the inevitably retrospective effect of reversing a long line of settled English authority. The Comptroller General’s second main submission is that, if the Aerotel approach is to be replaced by the approach endorsed in G1/19, then this will not merely alter settled English law and practice in relation to the application of article 52(2), but will also overturn the equally long-settled approach to the assessment of inventive step, laid down in Pozzoli SpA v BDMO SA [2007] EWCA Civ 588; [2007] FSR 37 and approved by this court in Actavis v ICOS, by requiring the adoption of the EPO’s technique of problem and solution. The Comptroller General criticised any attempt to try to combine the approach in G1/19 with the settled English approach to inventive step as creating a Frankenstein monster. 54. If rejecting the Aerotel approach did require a wholesale adoption of the EPO’s problem and solution approach to inventive step, there would be real force in the Comptroller General’s concern, not least because this court was not assisted by any submissions about reforming the English approach to inventive step, nor given advance warning that the court might be asked to consider departing from Actavis v ICOS, which might have called for a panel of seven Justices to hear the appeal. But we do not agree with the submission that adopting the same interpretation of article 52 of the EPC as the EPO Board of Appeal necessitates changing in any significant way the received approach to assessing whether there is an inventive step. We will shortly set out how we consider that consistency in interpretation of the EPC may be achieved. But, in short, we do not regard Comvik, Duns and G1/19 as deciding or suggesting that the problem and solution approach of the EPO is the only way of assessing inventive step, or the only way of factoring the exclusions in article 52(2) into the overall appraisal of patentability. 55. A third main submission of the Comptroller General was that, in reality, the Aerotel approach does indeed accommodate the substance of the interpretation of article 52(2) found in Comvik, so that it is not inconsistent with the approach of the EPO. The submission was that the “any hardware” test is really no more than window-dressing, because of the ease with which any competent patent drafter can satisfy it by including some piece of hardware in the claim. The real test was said to be that applied in identifying the technical parts of a mixed invention as part of, or as an intermediate step before, undertaking the analysis of novelty and inventive step. It was submitted that the EPC does not prescribe the order in which the conditions for patentability have to be assessed, and that the Aerotel approach just carries out the same exercise in substance as the approach in Comvik, but in a different order. Again, we reject this submission, but our reasons for doing so are bound up with our appraisal of the arguments in favour of rejecting the Aerotel approach, to which we now turn. Our reasons for rejecting the Aerotel approach The strongest reason for rejecting the Aerotel approach is that it has been emphatically rejected as a means of applying article 52(2) and (3) by the Enlarged Board in G1/19. That rejection has two aspects. First, the “any hardware” approach was firmly approved as the first, necessary, stage in identifying whether there is an invention at all, before moving on to consider novelty, inventive step, and industrial application (para 28). By contrast, the “any hardware” approach had been equally firmly rejected in Aerotel. Second, as already explained, the Enlarged Board impliedly endorsed the criticisms of the Aerotel approach in Duns, as being incompatible with the EPC and based upon a misunderstanding of the meaning of the term “invention” in article 52(1). Thus, leaving aside the references to problem and solution, the rejection of the Aerotel approach by the EPO cannot sensibly be described as just a preference for a different methodology or practice among a range of options potentially available. It is a rejection firmly based upon a determination that the Court of Appeal in Aerotel misinterpreted the EPC, and that its approach was both irreconcilable with the EPC and indeed not to be regarded as a good faith attempt to implement it. Nor can it be said that the basis for rejecting the Aerotel approach involved an error of reasoning or was outwith the bounds of reasonable difference of opinion. As we have emphasised, the principles which determine whether or not to follow the jurisprudence of the EPO do not require us to decide, as between an established approach of the Board and a different approach taken by the English courts, which of the two we think more persuasive. 59. That said, there is, we consider, real force in the EPO Board’s criticism of the Aerotel approach as an application of the requirements of the EPC. The plain (Vienna Convention compliant) reading of article 52(2), in its context, is that it goes solely to the question whether the subject matter of the claim for a patent is an invention. The matters enumerated shall “not be regarded as inventions within the meaning of paragraph (1)”. Yet the Aerotel approachdoes not address this question. After construing the claim, it goes straight to identifying the actual contribution made by the claim, and then asks whether the contribution, rather than the invention, falls solely within the subject matter excluded by article 52(2). This is what the Board criticised in Duns as revealing a misinterpretation of “invention” as used in the EPC, as if it had to be novel or involve an inventive step. As noted earlier (see para 28 above), the Court of Appeal used the term “contribution” to denote “a technical contribution to the known art” and said that this involves assessing what, in substance, the inventor “has really added to human knowledge”. That surely raises considerations of novelty and inventive step, both of which (as the EPO Board has rightly emphasised) are separate and independent requirements of patentability within the scheme of the EPC from the requirement of an “invention” which is the subject of article 52(2). As Mustill LJ had already pointed out in Genentech (see para 34 above), under the scheme of the EPC the question whether the claim discloses anything that can be regarded as an invention must be answered in the affirmative before the other requirements for patentability become relevant. By contrast, the approach finally approved in G1/19 does squarely address the question whether the claim amounts to an “invention”, uncluttered with any assessment of contribution, novelty or inventive step. It construes that term in light of the basic requirement that patents are to be extended only to that which is technical, as enshrined generally in article 52(1) and treating article 52(2) as providing a non-exhaustive list of examples of matters which are non-technical. It is fair comment that the “any hardware” test imposes only a low hurdle, but this is justified by the EPO as stemming from the addition of “as such” to each of the excluded items by article 52(3). Describing this clearly expressed first test as mere window dressing, as the Comptroller General does, fails to engage with the analysis in G1/19 or to offer any alternative interpretation of the language of article 52. In any case, contrary to the Comptroller General’s submission that the EPC is agnostic about the order in which the requirements for patentability are addressed, the interpretation of article 52 endorsed by the Enlarged Board in G1/19 does, we consider, identify a requirement, or at least clear guidance, from its interpretation of the EPC that the question whether the claim discloses an “invention” must be considered first, ahead of and separately from the other three conditions of novelty, inventive step and industrial application. This is implicit in the Duns principles and is emphasised in the passage ending with para 39 of the Enlarged Board’s reasons in G1/19, quoted at para 43 above. Again, although we do not have to decide this question, there is real force in the analysis of the Enlarged Board. Article 52(1) speaks of inventions in all fields of technology being patentable provided the further conditions (novelty, inventive step and industrial application) are satisfied. Article 52(2) and (3) then tell you what is or is not an invention. The following provisions of the EPC (including the exceptions in article 53) all proceed by applying further conditions to something already qualifying as an invention: see article 54 (novelty), 56 (inventive step) and 57 (industrial application). The Aerotel approach at best jumbles up the test of an invention with the other requirements for patentability (if indeed it mentions that first question at all) and reverses the logical order of analysis by starting with contribution to the known art (step 2), then addressing the article 52(2) exclusions (step 3), and then finally going back at step 4 to the “technical in nature” question, which is really an aspect of article 52(1). For those reasons we consider that there is a compelling case, in the light of G1/19, for rejecting the Aerotel approach which is not met by any of the objections to doing so advanced on behalf of the Comptroller General. Of course, there is nothing wrong with step 1 in the Aerotel approach (construe the claim), nor has the EPO suggested that there is. But steps 2 to 4 cannot be maintained. 65. The question remains: what method, approach or guidance should this court provide by way of replacement? We have already made it clear that this should not be what the Comptroller General has labelled “any hardware” + Comvik, if by that is meant everything in Comvik, including its guidance on how to carry out the problem and solution method when assessing inventive step. It was perfectly understandable that the Board in Comvik should have given that guidance, and that the Enlarged Board approved it in G1/19, because the problem and solution method of assessing inventive step was already well-established in the practice the EPO. But it is a matter of practice rather than something dictated by the EPC on its true interpretation. Subject to an irrelevant exception relating to certain documents, all that the EPC tells you about how to decide whether the claim involves an inventive step is (in article 56) that a step is inventive if it is not obvious to a person skilled in the art. We see no reason to doubt that, as confirmed by this court in Actavis v ICOS, the approach to inventive step laid out in Pozzoli remains a legitimate approach. In our view, the approach which should be adopted by courts in the UK is that contained in the Duns principles other than principle G (and the second paragraph of the Comvik headnote), as explained by the further reasoning in G1/19, in particular about the need for an intermediate step between “any hardware” and inventive step to determine which features in a “mixed” invention contribute to its technical character: see again para 39 of the Board’s reasons. This is for the purpose of excluding non-technical features (ie features which do not contribute to the technical character of the invention) when assessing at the next stage whether the invention involves an inventive step in relation to the prior art. 67. We do not accept that this approach, which continues to recognise the validity of the Pozzoli method for identifying an inventive step, will create a Frankenstein monster, as suggested on behalf of the Comptroller General. This appeal, and the question whether to reject the Aerotel approach, are concerned entirely with how article 52 of the EPC is to be interpreted and applied. That involves examining a claim to ascertain whether it amounts to an “invention”, coupled with the need to exclude, in advance, non-technical features of the invention (as explained above) from the assessment of inventive step and novelty. It is not concerned with whether the claim satisfies those requirements. The UKIPO rejected these claims before reaching that question. Whether the conclusions reached on this appeal have any repercussions for and give rise to any need to adjust the methodologies currently used in the UK for assessing novelty or inventive step is not something about which the court has received any submissions. It will have to be left to a case where it arises. Issue 2: Is an ANN (or does it contain) a “program for a computer”? The next issue is whether the exclusion in article 52(2)(c) of “programs for computers” is relevant to the applicant’s claims at all. The applicant argues that it is not, because ANNs - such as the ANN described in the claims - are not and do not contain programs for computers. So there is no excluded matter. If correct, this argument would provide a short answer to the appeal. It would make the answer to issue 1, discussed above, immaterial to the outcome, and the remaining issues would fall away. The competing arguments As developed by Mr Mark Chacksfield KC on this appeal and in the courts below, the applicant’s argument draws a distinction between what he calls a “hardware ANN” or “physical ANN” on the one hand and a “software ANN” or “emulated ANN” on the other. According to this distinction, a “hardware ANN” is a physical machine: in essence a box containing a network of standard electronic components connected by wires or circuit boards. Inputs are fed in by electronic signals at one end of the box, and the outputs emerge as electronic signals at the other end. A “software ANN” emulates a hardware ANN by means of a software program operated by a conventional computer - that is to say, a digital computer with a central processing unit (CPU), memory and registers. Mr Chacksfield submitted that it is wrong to regard a hardware ANN as a “computer” at all, as it has no component (a CPU) capable of receiving, interpreting and executing instructions which constitute a “program for a computer”. At all events it has no “program”. This he defined as a sequence of logical instructions, each commanding the computer (or, more accurately, its CPU) to execute a specific logical function. He submitted that, as a hardware ANN neither is, nor contains, a program for a computer, the same must apply to an “emulated ANN”, as it is functionally the same and operates in the same manner. In the High Court the applicant’s case was assisted by the fact that counsel for the Comptroller General did not challenge the basic description of a “hardware ANN” and, while maintaining that a hardware ANN is a computer, conceded that it has no program. The judge understood the basis for the concession to be that, in the case of a trained ANN, “the hardware is not implementing a series of instructions pre-ordained by a human”. Yet, as the judge observed, exactly the same can be said of an “emulated ANN”: “It is not implementing code given to it by a human. … It is created by the ANN itself” (para 54). On that basis the judge held that neither type of ANN is or contains a program for a computer. In the Court of Appeal, the Comptroller General’s case was put differently. It was now said that an ANN, in whatever form it is implemented, is a (programmable) computer and has a program, which consists in a set of adjustable parameters which instruct the machine to perform a specific task. These adjustable parameters are the weights and biases of the ANN. They are a program which makes the trained ANN perform the task for which it has been programmed through the process of training. 73. The Court of Appeal accepted the Comptroller General’s analysis. They defined a computer as “a machine which processes information” and a computer program as “a set of instructions for a computer to do something”: more specifically, a set of instructions which causes the machine to process information in a particular way (para 61). They characterised an ANN as “a machine which processes information” (para 9) and therefore a computer (para 68). And they identified the weights and biases of an ANN (which they referred to for short simply as “weights”) as a computer program. Their reasoning, as explained at para 68, was that: “[The weights] are a set of instructions for a computer to do something. For a given machine, a different set of weights will cause the machine to process information in a different way. The fact the set does not take the form of a logical series of ‘if-then’ type statements is irrelevant. The weights for a given artificial neuron are what cause the neuron, if the inputs are of a given type, to then produce an output of a given type. Aggregated up to the ANN as a whole, these weights work that way in parallel with one another to a significant extent and not just in a logical series, but that is not a relevant distinction. The set of weights as a whole instruct the machine to process information it is presented with in a particular way.” On this appeal the Comptroller General defends this analysis and conclusion. The applicant takes issue with it and maintains its case that the term “computer” should be interpreted more narrowly to mean a device with a CPU, which can manipulate data by receiving and executing a sequence of logical instructions. A “program for a computer” is such a sequence of logical instructions. Applying these definitions, an ANN is not a computer, in particular because it has no CPU. Critically, the applicant submits, there is no program for a computer within an ANN, even when it is implemented on a computer of a conventional kind, because there is no series of instructions stored or executed anywhere in the system, and no coded command instructing any part of the computer (let alone a CPU specifically) to execute any particular logical function. 75. The interveners (the Chartered Institute of Patent Attorneys and the IP Federation), in written submissions which we have found helpful, also dispute the Court of Appeal’s analysis but for somewhat different reasons. They too submit that the description of a computer as “a machine which processes information” is too broad. But they also argue that the Court of Appeal was wrong to describe an ANN as a (physical) machine. They say that an ANN is generally regarded in the computing field as akin to a function, which maps an input to some output. This functionality may either be implemented on a conventional computer (with a CPU, memory etc) or on a dedicated physical machine. In either case the ANN is not itself a computer. Nor are the weights within an ANN a program for a computer, as the Court of Appeal held. They differ from a conventional computer program because they do not tell a computing device what to do; rather they are data which are used in the operation of the ANN. This is so whether the weights are variables which may be altered during training or have been fixed after the training has been completed. See also, for a similar analysis, an article by Hannah Yee-Fen Lim, “Complexities of AI and Artificial Neural Networks in Patent Law Decisions (2025) 47(8) EIPR 447-452, asserting that ANNs are not machines but are computational models and that weights and biases are data and not programs. The description of ANNs as “computational models” is also used in the Guidelines for Examination in the EPO (April 2025), para 3.3.1 (Artificial intelligence and machine learning). What counts as a computer and a computer program We agree with the applicant and the interveners that the description of a computer as “a machine which processes information” is too broad, in that it encompasses many devices which are not generally considered to be computers. Examples given in argument include a basic oven, a smoke detector, an analogue radio or record player with a volume control, and an old-fashioned jukebox that plays a song selected by a user. Each of these devices receives and processes information to generate an output. What differentiates them from a “computer”, as that term is ordinarily used and understood, is - as it seems to us - that they are not used to perform computations. On the other hand, we see no reason to confine the term “computer” to conventional digital computers of the kind described by the applicant. It is unreasonable to interpret the EPC in a way that ties its application to a particular technology which happens currently to be prevalent. The presumption must be that the concepts used in the Convention are intended to accommodate technological change - all the more so when its subject matter is the grant of patents. As counsel for the Comptroller General pointed out, before the development of digital computers, electronic analogue computers were used for various applications; and, looking to the future, quantum computers are now being developed which use the principles of quantum physics to process information in a fundamentally different way from conventional computers. There is no warrant for excluding devices of either of these kinds from the scope of article 52(2)(c). 78. The same applies to the applicant’s attempt to limit the concept of a “program for a computer” to a set of instructions addressed to a conventional digital computer. Counsel for the applicant cited the following statement of Nicholls LJ in Gale, at p 324: “The Act contains no definition or description of what is meant by the expression ‘program for a computer’. For present purposes it is sufficient to note that a computer program is essentially a series of instructions capable of being followed by a CPU to produce a desired result.” This statement needs to be read in context. It recapitulates a longer description given in a section of the judgment headed “Outline of a digital computer” which was an “attempt to outline the basic equipment and manner of working of a digital computer”. Nicholls LJ there said, at p 321: “A sequence of instructions is called a program. ‘Program’ is a flexible term, covering anything from a sequence of binary numbers intended to be stored in the memory of a computer and to be acted on directly, to a representation of such instructions in languages which bear some resemblance to natural languages. What distinguishes a computer program is that it either is, or can be translated unambiguously into, a sequence of instructions capable of being followed by a CPU to produce desired manipulations of data in a predictable manner.” 79. A conventional digital computer was the only type of computer that was relevant in Gale. The description of a “program” given by Nicholls LJ when explaining how such a computer works cannot reasonably be taken to mean or imply that a conventional digital computer with a CPU is the only type of device capable of falling within the scope of the legislation and that only a series of instructions capable of being followed by such a device can count as a “program for a computer” within the meaning of article 52(2)(c). To allow for the fact that there are computers which are not conventional digital computers, the description of a “program” must be correspondingly broadened to include a set of instructions capable of being followed by a computer (of any kind) - which may or may not have a CPU - to produce desired manipulations of data. These manipulations of data are “predictable” in the sense that they are determined by the instructions which the computer is “programmed” to follow. They may well not be predictable in the sense that the results of the manipulations can be foreseen in advance. Much of the utility of computers derives precisely from their ability to perform calculations and produce results that far exceed the capabilities of any human brain. Application to an ANN In our opinion, the Court of Appeal was right to hold that the expression “program for a computer” in article 52(2)(c) of the EPC is applicable to an ANN. But we think that the Comptroller General and the Court of Appeal conceded too much by accepting the applicant’s characterisation of an ANN as a (physical) machine, in drawing a conceptual distinction between a “hardware ANN” and a “software emulation of an ANN” and in describing a “hardware ANN” as a physical box with electronics in it. 81. This characterisation of an ANN is not supported by the expert report relied on by the applicant. It is true that Professor Pardoe uses the word “machine” when explaining methods of machine learning (see para 22 of his report). But he makes it clear that he is referring to an “abstract machine” and not a physical piece of apparatus. He refers to an ANN as a “model” (para 23). Professor Pardoe explains that an ANN is made up of a collection of neurons, arranged in layers, and that each neuron generates an output value by applying a separate weight value to each input value, aggregating the weighted input values with a bias value and applying an activation function (para 27). What he describes is a series of mathematical operations. As succinctly stated by the Hearing Officer, at para 63 of the UKIPO decision, an ANN is “an abstract model which takes a numerical input, applies a series of mathematical operations (applying weights, biases and an activation function) and outputs a numerical result at successive layers”. An ANN can be depicted diagrammatically, as illustrated in the Court of Appeal’s judgment, at para 5. All this shows that an ANN is an abstract entity, and not a physical object. An ANN can of course be implemented in hardware (ie in a physical machine). But, as Professor Pardoe explains, such hardware may take a variety of forms. The hardware used may be neuromorphic hardware specially designed to incorporate an ANN, or field programmable gate arrays which can be configured and reconfigured after manufacturing, or a conventional computer (with a CPU). The Court of Appeal makes the point, at para 15, that an ANN can be implemented in hardware in which the weights and biases are adjustable, or in hardware in which the weights and biases are fixed. The fact that the same ANN can be implemented in any of these different types of hardware demonstrates than an ANN is not and cannot be identified with a type of hardware. 83. The applicant seeks to avoid this conclusion by distinguishing between a “hardware ANN” and what it calls an “emulated ANN” implemented through software run on a conventional computer. The implication is that only certain types of hardware can be a “real” ANN and that, when a conventional computer is used, it is merely mimicking what a “real” ANN does. In our view, this is an untenable distinction. There is no conceptual justification for privileging one form of implementation over another: the choice between them is merely practical. As Professor Pardoe notes in his report, at para 43: “Software and hardware implementations are the same in terms of the architecture, weights and biases, and the outputs produced. It is just a question of which is more convenient or efficient to use in any particular scenario.” The same point was made more generally by the EPO Board of Appeal in Vicom/Computer-related invention (Decision T 208/84) [1987] 2 EPOR 74 (“Vicom”), para 16, in a passage quoted by the applicant stating that: “making a distinction between embodiments of the same invention carried out in hardware or in software is inappropriate as it can fairly be said that the choice between these two possibilities is not of an essential nature but is based on technical and economical considerations which bear no relationship to the inventive concept as such.” For this reason, it is not relevant that an ANN can be implemented using various different types of physical machine. That, as counsel for the applicant themselves put it, is “a mere implementation choice”. What matters is the arrangement of artificial neurons, each characterised by its links to other neurons in the network, weights, bias and activation function. The network is an abstract entity or model. It is not a physical object. It is therefore not itself a computer (which is a physical object) and the Court of Appeal was in our view mistaken in describing it as such. 85. We would add that the analysis is not illuminated by saying that a “hardware ANN” is simply a box with electronics in it. Exactly the same can be said of a conventional computer. Any type of hardware on which an ANN is implemented consists of a box with electronics in it. Nor do we accept the applicant’s assertion (see para 74 above) that, even when an ANN is implemented on a computer of a conventional kind, there is no series of instructions stored or executed anywhere in the system, and no coded command instructing any part of the computer (let alone a CPU specifically) to execute any particular logical function. Since the only way in which a conventional computer can operate is by utilising a CPU to read and execute a series of coded instructions, the very fact that an ANN can be implemented on a conventional computer shows that the assertion must be wrong. What the applicant refers to as a “software ANN” is an ANN translated into machine readable code which can be executed by a conventional digital computer to produce results which are identical to those generated by any other embodiment of the ANN. 86. What then is the relationship of an ANN to a computer? We think it apt to describe the machine on which an ANN is implemented as a computer. That is uncontroversially so where a conventional computer is used. But it can make no difference that the hardware used is a dedicated item which embodies a particular network architecture or a set of field programmable gate arrays which is configured to embody that architecture. As discussed above, what characterises a computer as a physical machine is its functionality, not the specific technology used to achieve that functionality. Regardless of how an ANN is implemented, data presented as an input is processed in a particular way by computations performed on the data as it is propagated through the network until it produces an output. The machine on which the ANN is implemented is thus functioning as a computer. It matters not whether operating the ANN is the only function which the machine is capable of performing or whether it is a multi-purpose machine (such as a conventional digital computer with a CPU) which can also be used for other data processing operations. Whatever the specific form of the machine on which an ANN is implemented, the ANN constitutes, in essence, a set of instructions to manipulate data in a particular way so as to produce a desired result. In other words, an ANN is a program for a computer. 88. The instructions include the weights and biases of the ANN, which the Court of Appeal characterised as such a program. But the weights and biases are not the only features of an ANN which cause the machine on which it is implemented to process data in a particular way. The output of the ANN depends not only on the set of weights and biases but on the topology of the network: the number of layers of neurons, the number of neurons in each layer and how the neurons are interconnected. It also depends on the mathematical function applied by each neuron to generate an output value. A network with one arrangement of neurons will cause the machine on which the ANN is implemented to process data in one particular way. A network with a different topology will cause the machine on which the ANN is implemented to process the same input data in a different way. The same is true if neurons within the network apply different activation functions. All these features of the ANN operate in combination to instruct the machine to process data in a particular way which will generate a particular final output. Conceptually, they are a set of instructions to a computer to carry out computations on data presented to it. The reasons given by the Court of Appeal in the passage quoted at para 73 above for identifying the weights as a program, with which we agree, apply equally to all the elements of an ANN and to the ANN as a whole. Viewed as a whole, an ANN is a program for a computer. 89. The difference between the weights and biases and the other features of an ANN such as its topology is that the former can be changed whereas the latter generally cannot. (In fact, this is not always true, as Professor Pardoe explains that some training regimes have the potential to redefine the topology of the network.) But, as the Court of Appeal points out, the distinction between instructions which can be changed and instructions which are permanent is not a relevant distinction. As Birss LJ said, at para 67: “There are some computers with programs which cannot be changed - eg the chips embedded in a payment card or a washing machine - but it remains meaningful to draw the same distinction between the program in that case and the computer itself. Whether the program for a given computer is fixed in a permanent form or not does not … alter the fact that the program represents a set of instructions for a computer to do something.” As Birss LJ also noted, the issue in Gale turned on an attempt to draw such a distinction, which was firmly rejected by the Court of Appeal. In that case the applicant argued that his application for a patent did not relate to a program for a computer because the relevant instructions were embodied in permanent form in the electronic circuitry of a read-only memory (ROM) disc. The Court of Appeal held that the fact that the ROM was a dedicated piece of apparatus which had been uniquely programmed so that the instructions embedded in it could not be altered made no relevant difference. As Sir Nicholas Browne-Wilkinson VC put it, at p 333: “The mere incorporation of the program in the ROM does not alter its nature: it remains a computer program”. The same can be said of a machine in which a trained ANN is incorporated with its weights and biases frozen. Thus, it is irrelevant whether an ANN is implemented on a machine in which the weights and biases are baked into the hardware and cannot be changed; or on a machine in which the network architecture is “hard-wired” but the weights and biases can be altered; or on hardware which can be reconfigured; or on a conventional computer for which implementing an ANN is only one of many possible uses. In each case the ANN - irrespective of whether any of its features (and, if so which) are adjustable - represents a set of instructions to the machine to perform operations. The ANN as a whole is a computer program. That is so even in the extreme case of a trained ANN in which the weights and biases have been frozen and incorporated in hardware that can be reproduced by manufacturing identical copies of the same physical circuit of components, just as it is in the case of an ANN in which the weights and biases can be altered. The Court of Appeal was also correct, in our view, to reject as irrelevant two other features of an ANN. One is that the ANN does not take the form solely of a sequence of logical operations of the type “if X, then Y”. One of the features of an ANN - as noted by Birss LJ in the passage we have quoted at para 73 above - is that its components operate in parallel with each other as well as in series (though this is true at the level of the artificial neurons and not just of the weights within each neuron). But that is not a relevant distinction. Computers can (and very often do) process information in parallel and not just in series and can be programmed to do so. The other irrelevant feature is that the instructions embodied in an ANN can use machine learning by which the weights and biases are adjusted through a process of training. As the Court of Appeal observed at para 64, it is commonplace in computing to use computer programs to generate other computer programs. For example, conventional computers work by running machine code which is compiled by a computer program that converts instructions written in a high-level programming language into machine readable form. We agree with the Court of Appeal that there is no justification for drawing a distinction in law between instructions created by a computer and those created by a human being. Once this is recognised, it cannot make a difference what particular method is used to program a computer to generate instructions which themselves constitute a computer program. Nor is it relevant that the weights and biases of a trained ANN are not known in advance. They are wholly determined by the instructions provided by the structure of the initial, untrained ANN (its topology, mathematical functions and initial weights and biases) when it operates on data selected for the purpose of training. The fact that, because of the limited computing power of the human brain, the variable parameters of the trained ANN cannot be predicted by a human being in advance is not significant. In Mitsubishi/Sparsely connected neural network (Decision T 702/20) 7 November 2022, the EPO Board of Appeal rejected an argument that an ANN was not a computer program because its functioning was not determined by the programmer but by the data used for training the ANN. We agree with the Board’s reasoning, at para 16.1, that what was material was that: “whilst the functioning of a neural network may not be foreseeable prior to training and the programmer may not understand the significance of its individual parameters …, the neural network still operates according to the programming of its structure and learning scheme. Its parameters and provided results are fully determined, given the training data and the training procedure …”. Accordingly, we conclude that the Hearing Officer was right to hold that an ANN is a program for a computer. It follows that, as the Court of Appeal correctly held, the exclusion from patentability for “programs for computers” provided by article 52(2)(c) of the EPC is engaged in this case. Issue 3: Is the entire subject matter of the claims excluded? Our conclusion on issue 2 makes it necessary to consider whether the entire subject matter of the applicant’s claims falls within the scope of the exclusion of “programs for computers … as such” or whether it includes technical features and so qualifies as an “invention” within the meaning of article 52(1). This question was addressed by the Hearing Officer and in the courts below applying the Aerotel approach. We have rejected that approach and concluded, in relation to issue 1, that the EPO’s “any hardware approach” should be applied. It is beyond dispute that on this approach the claims are to an “invention” and are not excluded by article 52(2)(c). Although the claimed method involves an ANN which is a program for a computer, it also involves technical means because the ANN can only be implemented on some form of computer hardware. In addition, the claims refer to a database for storing data files, a communications network and a user device - all of which require or constitute hardware. That is sufficient to show that the subject matter of the claims has technical character and is not to a computer program “as such”. It follows that the UKIPO was wrong to decide, for the reason it did, that the application for a patent should be refused. It would be possible to stop at this point and simply decide that the case should be sent back to the UKIPO to consider whether the invention satisfies the requirements of novelty and inventive step. No assessment has yet been made, or view expressed, by the UKIPO in relation to those matters. But we are apprehensive that to say nothing further about the merits of the claims would be unhelpful to the parties and would result in a great deal of further cost and delay. We also recognise that, in the interests of the UKIPO and of patent applicants generally, we should try to give any further assistance that we properly can regarding how applications for computer-implemented inventions should be approached once they have cleared the first, very low hurdle of satisfying the “invention” test through the use of “any hardware”. As will appear, that further assistance is limited by the way in which the matter has reached this court. The intermediate step Following the guidance in G1/19, the next stage would be to undertake what the Enlarged Board called the “intermediate step” lying between steps (1) and (2) of what had until then been described as “the two-hurdle approach” for computer implemented inventions: see paras 37-39 of G/19. Step (1) is to decide whether the subject matter of the claim qualifies as an invention, by applying article 52 of the EPC. Step (2) requires a consideration of whether the invention qualifies as novel under article 54 of the EPC and involves an inventive step under article 56 of the EPC. We have concluded that the claims in issue satisfy step (1). The subject matter of the claims constitutes an invention within the meaning of article 52 of the EPC. Understanding what the “intermediate step” involves begins with principle F in the Duns principles (approved in G/19) which recognises that a claim may legitimately consist of a mix of technical and non-technical features, in which the non-technical features may even predominate. Non-technical features “as such” do not provide a contribution to the prior art and are therefore to be ignored in assessing novelty and inventive step at stage (2). But the phrase “non-technical features as such” means (and means only) “non-technical features which do not interact with the technical subject matter of the claim”: see G1/19 citing Duns principle F and quoted at our para 39 above. Non-technical features which do interact with the technical subject matter of the claim are therefore to be included in step (2). The distinction there made between features of the claim which are to be included and those which are to be excluded at step (2) depends upon “interaction”, as described. This is fleshed out at some length in paras 32 and 33 of G1/19. In para 32 “non-technical features” are defined as features which would be considered non-inventions if viewed on their own under article 52 of the EPC. It is further said that: “Whether such features contribute to the technical character of the invention has to be assessed in the context of the invention as a whole”. At the beginning of para 33 it is said that even features which can be considered technical per se need to be assessed in the same way: ie by asking whether they contribute to the technical character of the invention as a whole. Para 33 then divides the features of an invention into four potential classes, of which class (ii) is “technical features which do not contribute” and class (iii) is “non-technical features which contribute”. The Board explains that class (ii) identifies features which, although they qualify as technical per se, “cannot contribute to inventive activity because they have no technical function within the context of the claimed invention”. Class (iii) is said to have been established by the case law of the EPO, referring back to Duns principle F: “non-technical features interacting with the technical subject matter of the claim”. The intermediate step is further described in paras 38 and 39 of G1/19. In para 38 its purpose is described as being “to assess the eligibility of the feature to contribute to inventive step”. In para 39 it is said that the intermediate step of establishing whether a feature contributes to the technical character of the invention “serves as a filter for features contributing to a technical solution of a technical problem in view of the closest prior art. Only those distinguishing features can contribute to inventive step.” 105. A number of significant points emerge from the way in which the Enlarged Board has described this intermediate step. The first is that the intermediate step is not just a part of EPO practice, like its problem and solution approach to inventiveness. It is a necessary part of the process of applying articles 52 to 56 (at least) of the EPC, because the invention threshold provided by the Board’s “any hardware” interpretation of article 52 is too low to enable the invention reliably to be tested for novelty and inventive step: see G1/19 paras 38-39, cited above. The EPC says nothing express about the intermediate step, but the Enlarged Board has held that it is implied by article 52. The effect of article 52(3) and the requirement of technicality inherent in article 52(1) is that the subject matter of an invention is patentable only to the extent that it is technical in character and not excluded by article 52(2). This in turn requires an analysis of the subject matter of an invention to ensure that only eligible features are taken into account in the assessment of inventive step. 106. The second point to note is the requirement, spelt out in para 32 of G1/19, to carry out this analysis by reference to the technical character of the invention, viewed as a whole. Only when that has been identified can it be seen whether any particular feature of the invention does or does not contribute to it, or interact with it. Although the discussion of the intermediate step is couched in terms of the technical solution of a technical problem, we have already concluded that the EPC does not mandate the EPO’s problem and solution approach as the sole means of resolving any question about patentability. It is just the way the EPO does so as a matter of its practice. But that simply means that it is open to the UKIPO and to the UK courts to adopt any appropriate method of identifying the technical character of the invention, viewed as a whole, as the necessary first part of carrying out the intermediate step. An example of an appropriate method might in a particular case be to identity the alleged “inventive concept” of the claim, as explained in Pozzoli. Thirdly, the intermediate step is, in terms of its function, concerned entirely with excluding features of the invention from subsequent consideration rather than with determining the patentability of the invention as a whole. Its object is to filter out features which do not contribute to the technical character of the invention viewed as a whole, so as to exclude those features from consideration at step (2) (inventive step). Or, put in positive terms, it is to allow consideration to be given at step (2) only to those features which do so contribute. It calls for a dissection of the subject matter of the invention into its component features and a review of the contributory role of each feature, by reference to the contribution made by that feature to, or interaction with, the technical character of invention viewed as a whole. Fourthly, this dissection stands in sharp contrast to step 4 of the Aerotel approach, which requires a holistic check to see whether the contribution of the claimed invention, viewed as a whole, is technical in nature. If not, it fails to qualify as an invention under article 52(1). This is the very opposite of the feature-by-feature approach required by the intermediate step described in G1/19. Fifthly, the intermediate step does not involve assessing each feature of the invention by asking whether the feature is itself, viewed separately, technical or non-technical. The sole criterion is whether the feature contributes to the technical character of the invention as a whole. Thus, technical features may be filtered out because they make no such contribution and non-technical features may be left in because they do make such a contribution. Sixthly, the intermediate step only arises if the invention as a whole is considered to be technical in character, by reason of having passed stage (1) under article 52 of the EPC. Again, this is a significant difference from step 4 of the Aerotel approach, which is the concluding stage of deciding whether the subject matter of the claim amounts to an invention at all, within the meaning of article 52 of the EPC. A corollary of this is that it is not relevant, at the stage of the intermediate step, whether the technical character of the invention appears to be novel or inventive. It was one of the principal criticisms of the Aerotel methodology by the EPO Board that it impermissibly jumbled up invention with novelty and inventive step by its focus on “contribution”: see Aerotel, para 43, cited at para 30 above, where the Court of Appeal defined contribution as that which, as a matter of substance rather than form, the inventor has really added to human knowledge; and Duns,para 12 (cited at paras 34-35 above), where that approach was criticised by the EPO Board. The question whether the invention adds anything to the sum total of human knowledge is a stage (2) question on the Board’s approach, which at the intermediate stage has not yet been reached. Application to this case The next questions are whether it is appropriate for this court itself (i) further to define the intermediate step for the purposes of its implementation in the UKIPO, or by the UK courts, in cases involving programs for computers or (ii) to carry it out in relation to the claims in issue. There are formidable difficulties in our way in doing either. 113. This appeal originated from a decision of the Hearing Officer that the claims fell foul of the exclusion from patentability of “programs for computers … as such”, applying the Aerotel analysis of article 52. The question whether the subject matter of the claims amounted to a program for a computer or to a program for a computer as such were fully argued at all levels, but solely through the lens of the Aerotel approach. We have concluded that this was the wrong approach, and that the approach set out by the Enlarged Board in G1/19 should be applied, adopting all but the last of the Duns principles. We have concluded that, even on that different approach to the interpretation and application of article 52 of the EPC, the claims do comprise, as the Court of Appeal held, a program for a computer; but that the claimed invention is not a program for a computer “as such” within the meaning of article 52(2) and (3) of the EPC read together. The result is that, contrary to the decision of the Hearing Officer and the judgment of the Court of Appeal, the claims do not fall foul of article 52. Their subject matter is an invention so that under the EPC they qualify for assessment under the headings of novelty, inventive step and industrial application. There was argument in the courts below about whether, in any event, the actual or alleged contribution made by the claims, viewed as a whole, was technical in nature, applying Aerotel step 4. But this was treated as an article 52(1) issue, going to the question whether the claims amounted to an invention at all. And it was necessarily addressed by counsel and decided by reference to the Aerotel conception of “contribution” which we have held to be unsound, for the reasons discussed above. Those arguments were repeated in this court, expressly against the possibility that we might conclude that Aerotel should continue to be followed in the UK. Since we have concluded otherwise, the basis upon which those arguments were advanced has fallen away. We see no merit in expressing views about how we would have applied to the claims made in this case a test which we have concluded is the wrong test to apply. To do so would only risk causing confusion. If we were to attempt to provide further assistance to the parties in this case and in future cases, it would need to be by reference to the intermediate step required by G1/19. But we have received no significant submissions or assistance on how this intermediate step should be conducted, nor as to which features, if any, of the invention which is the subject of the claims should be filtered out before the assessment of novelty and inventive step. And we have explained in paras 105 to 111 above how that intermediate step is significantly different from Aerotel step 4. We did hear argument about whether replacing the Aerotel approach with that set out in G1/19 would require a departure from the approach to inventive step outlined in Pozzoli and approved in Actavis v ICOS, because of the supposed need to incorporate the EPO’s problem and solution approach to inventive step. But this was directed to the pros and cons of overruling Aerotel. We did not hear argument focused on how the intermediate step is to be applied to computer-implemented inventions or on whether or in what way English cases which have considered, in the context of the Aerotel approach, whether a computer-implemented invention has a relevant technical effect continue to provide assistance when applying the approach set out in G1/19. There are rare occasions when a new question arising for the first time in this court but not addressed in the parties’ written cases can be tackled, usually with the help of further written submissions and exceptionally by a further hearing. We do not consider that this case is one of them. This appeal raises issues of fundamental importance for the UK’s application of the EPC to computer-implemented claims, particularly in the rapidly expanding field of AI. It would be unwise for us to embark on carrying out the analysis required by the intermediate step - and in doing so to create binding precedent - without the benefit of both in-depth legal argument and the views of the UKIPO and the specialist judges in the lower courts, none of which are available to us. In the result we have concluded that the right course is to allow the appeal, set aside the decision of the Hearing Officer from which the appeal originates and confine this court’s ruling to the matters resolved above, including those aspects of the intermediate step which we have discussed. How it applies to this invention, and whether the features of the invention which contribute to its technical character can be considered to involve an inventive step, are questions to be considered by the Hearing Officer. Appendix — the principal claims Claim 1 (a) an artificial neural network “ANN” having an output capable of generating a property vector in property space, the ANN trained by subjecting the ANN to a multiplicity of pairs of training data files sharing a content modality and where for each pair of training data files there are two independently derived separation distances, namely: a first independently derived separation distance that expresses a measure of relative distance between a first pair of training data files in semantic embedding space, where the first independently derived separation distance is obtained from natural language processing “NLP” of a semantic description of the nature of the data associated with each one of the first pair of training data files; and a second independently derived separation distance that expresses a measure of relative distance similarity between the first pair of training data files in property embedding space, where the second independently derived separation distance is a property distance derived from measurable properties extracted from each one of the first pair of training data files, and wherein training of the ANN by a backpropagation process uses output vectors generated at the output of the ANN from processing of said multiplicity of pairs to adjust weighting factors to adapt the ANN during training to converge distances of generated output vectors, in property embedding space, towards corresponding pairwise semantic distances in semantic space, and wherein shared content modality is: (i) video data files; or alternatively (ii) audio data files; or alternatively (iii) static image files; or alternatively (iv) text files; and (b) a database in which is stored a multiplicity of reference data files with content modality with target data and a stored association between each reference data file and a related individual property vector, wherein each related individual property vector is obtained from processing, within the trained ANN, of file properties extracted from its respective reference data file and each related individual property vector encodes the semantic description of its respective reference data file; (e) processing intelligence arranged: in response to the trained ANN receiving target data as an input and for which target data an assessment of relative semantic similarity of its content is to be made, and the ANN producing a file vector (Vpiie) in property space for the target data based on processing within the trained ANN of file properties extracted from the target data; to access the database; to compare the file vector of the target data with individual property vectors of the multiplicity of reference data files in the database to produce an ordered list which identifies relevant reference data files that have property vectors measurably similar to the property vector and thus to identify relevant reference files that are semantically similar to the target data; and to send, over the communications network, relevant reference files to the user device; wherein the user device is arranged to receive the relevant reference files and to output the content thereof. Claim 4 A method of providing semantically relevant file recommendations in a system including an artificial neutral network “ANN” having an output capable of generating a property vector in property space, the method comprising: (a) training the ANN by subjecting the ANN to a multiplicity of pairs of training data files sharing a content modality and where for each pair of training data files there are two independently derived separation distances, namely: a first independently derived separation distance that expresses a measure of relative distance between a first pair of training data files in semantic embedding space, where the first independently derived separation distance is obtained from natural language processing “NLP” of a semantic description of the nature of the data associated with each one of the first pair of training data files; and a second independently derived separation distance that expresses a measure of relative distance similarity between the first pair of training data files in property embedding space, where the second independently derived separation distance is a property distance derived from measurable properties extracted from each one of the first pair of training data files, and wherein shared content modality is: (i) video data files; or alternatively (ii) audio data files; or alternatively (iii) static image files; or alternatively (iv) text files; b) in a backpropagation process in the ANN, using output vectors generated at the output of the ANN from processing of said multiplicity of pairs to adjust weighting factors in the ANN, thereby adapting the ANN during training to converge distances of generated output vectors, in property embedding space, towards corresponding pairwise semantic distances in semantic space, and (b) storing, in a database, a multiplicity of reference data files with content modality with target data and a stored association between each reference data file and a related individual property vector, wherein each related individual property vector is obtained from processing, within the trained ANN, of file properties extracted from its respective reference data file and each related individual property vector encodes the semantic description of its respective reference data file; (c) in response to the trained ANN receiving target data as an input and for which target data an assessment of relative semantic similarity of its content is to be made, and the ANN producing a file vector (Vnie) in property space for the target data based on processing within the trained ANN of file properties extracted from the target data; (d) comparing the file vector of the target data with individual property vectors of the multiplicity of reference data files in the database to produce an ordered list which identifies relevant reference files that are measurably similar to the property vector and thus identifying relevant reference data files that are semantically similar to the target data; (e) sending, over the communications network, relevant reference data files to the user device; and at the user device, receiving the relevant reference files and outputting the content thereof.

On TNA: From TNA: Emotional Perception AI Limited v Comptroller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks

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Australian tribunal decision helps shape how businesses use facial recognition technology and balance privacy In a significant development for privacy law in Australia, the Administrative Review Tribunal has released its decision following a review of the Australian Privacy Commissioner’s decision on Bunnings’ use facial recognition technology.

From Out-Law: Australian tribunal decision helps shape how businesses use facial recognition technology and balance privacy

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Is now the time to consider sale-and-leaseback for your commercial property? Asda’s recent £568 million sale-and-leaseback deal has once again thrust this financing strategy into the spotlight. The supermarket giant has sold 24 stores and its Lutterworth distribution depot to institutional investors, then immediately leasing them back on 25-year agreements. For businesses facing debt pressures or seeking to unlock capital tied up in property assets, the […] The post Is now the time to consider sale-and-leaseback for your commercial property? appeared first on Venables Legal Resources.

On Venables: Is now the time to consider sale-and-leaseback for your commercial property? #Property

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